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| Tags: 1905, einsteins, energy, potential, relativity |
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#1
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In his 1905 Sep 27 paper, Einstein derived the mass-energy
relationship from the Principle of Relativity (PoR, stated in his 1905 Jun 30 paper) and the Principle of Energy (PoE, conservation of energy E = K + U, K: kinetic energy, U: potential energy). Even if he doesn't use the word "potential", he handles very explicitly the "arbitrary additive constants" characteristic of potential energies in 1905 (and even today). He arrives to the conclusion that "The mass of a body is a measure of its energy-content" (in his own words). For a body at rest (kinetic energy K=0, rest mass m_0), this implies E = U = m_0c^2, measuring rest mass its potential energy. But this doesn't seem compatible with the today meaning of rest mass as a body constant intrinsic attribute (maybe this is only valid assuming a constant potential condition). We can also note that in Einstein's conclusion disappears the "arbitrary additive constants", emerging the m_0=0 condition as an ABSOLUTE zero potential point (and for all kind of energies present at the same time). By sure all of this is sufficient to open an interesting debate (I hope so). RVHG |
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#2
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On Mar 16, 4:47 am, wrote:
In his 1905 Sep 27 paper, Einstein derived the mass-energy relationship from the Principle of Relativity (PoR, stated in his 1905 Jun 30 paper) and the Principle of Energy (PoE, conservation of energy E = K + U, K: kinetic energy, U: potential energy). Even if he doesn't use the word "potential", he handles very explicitly the "arbitrary additive constants" characteristic of potential energies in 1905 (and even today). He arrives to the conclusion that "The mass of a body is a measure of its energy-content" (in his own words). For a body at rest (kinetic energy K=0, rest mass m_0), this implies E = U = m_0c^2, measuring rest mass its potential energy. But this doesn't seem compatible with the today meaning of rest mass as a body constant intrinsic attribute (maybe this is only valid assuming a constant potential condition). We can also note that in Einstein's conclusion disappears the "arbitrary additive constants", emerging the m_0=0 condition as an ABSOLUTE zero potential point (and for all kind of energies present at the same time). By sure all of this is sufficient to open an interesting debate (I hope so). RVHG This is why I wish people would stop focusing on the 1905 version of relativity and worry more about the 2007 version that is actually used. There is nothing to be gained in arguing about this. |
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#3
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wrote in message ups.com... In his 1905 Sep 27 paper, Einstein derived the mass-energy relationship from the Principle of Relativity (PoR, stated in his 1905 Jun 30 paper) and the Principle of Energy (PoE, conservation of energy E = K + U, K: kinetic energy, U: potential energy). Even if he doesn't use the word "potential", he handles very explicitly the "arbitrary additive constants" characteristic of potential energies in 1905 (and even today). He arrives to the conclusion that "The mass of a body is a measure of its energy-content" (in his own words). For a body at rest (kinetic energy K=0, rest mass m_0), this implies E = U = m_0c^2, measuring rest mass its potential energy. But this doesn't seem compatible with the today meaning of rest mass as a body constant intrinsic attribute (maybe this is only valid assuming a constant potential condition). We can also note that in Einstein's conclusion disappears the "arbitrary additive constants", emerging the m_0=0 condition as an ABSOLUTE zero potential point (and for all kind of energies present at the same time). By sure all of this is sufficient to open an interesting debate (I hope so). RVHG What's big deal? The guy was a ****wit, anyone can figure out E= mc^2. http://www.androcles01.pwp.blueyonder.co.uk/MC2.htm http://www.androcles01.pwp.blueyonder.co.uk/E^2/DeriveMC2.htm Squawk, Einstein, Screech, Baaa.... http://www.androcles01.pwp.blueyonder.co.uk/SR.GIF |
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#4
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wrote in message ups.com... In his 1905 Sep 27 paper, Einstein derived the mass-energy relationship from the Principle of Relativity (PoR, stated in his 1905 Jun 30 paper) and the Principle of Energy (PoE, conservation of energy E = K + U, K: kinetic energy, U: potential energy). Even if he doesn't use the word "potential", he handles very explicitly the "arbitrary additive constants" characteristic of potential energies in 1905 (and even today). He arrives to the conclusion that "The mass of a body is a measure of its energy-content" (in his own words). For a body at rest (kinetic energy K=0, rest mass m_0), this implies E = U = m_0c^2, measuring rest mass its potential energy. Your reasoning is false as has been pointed out to you time and time again. We now know, but was not known to Einstein at the time, that energy is the conserved Noether charge associated with time symmetry - not the old fashioned ideas dredged from Einstein's historical writings. Potential energy is a classical concept not applicable to relativity because the potential function depends on spatial coordinates - change the position of the source of the potential and instantaneously the potential function changes implying the force changes instantaneously - this is against the foundations of relativity. See page 8 - Landau - Mechanics for a discussion on this very fundamental point that was not known to Einstein in his early days - it had to wait until Emily Noether, while working on a problem for Einstein, came up with her very important and famous theorem. Einstein himself gave it the highest of praise and subsequent developments in physics has reinforced in very fundamental importance. But this doesn't seem compatible with the today meaning of rest mass as a body constant intrinsic attribute (maybe this is only valid assuming a constant potential condition). We can also note that in Einstein's conclusion disappears the "arbitrary additive constants", emerging the m_0=0 condition as an ABSOLUTE zero potential point (and for all kind of energies present at the same time). Myself and others have been over this many times with you. You need to understand the modern definition of energy - it has nothing to with potential energy. Potential energy only appears in classical mechanics due to the fact that time is an absolute. Once that condition is dropped in relativity it can not exist. Read and understand Landau's reference where this is explained in detail - in Landaus admittedly terse - but correct - style. Bill By sure all of this is sufficient to open an interesting debate (I hope so). RVHG |
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#5
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"Eric Gisse" wrote in message oups.com... On Mar 16, 4:47 am, wrote: In his 1905 Sep 27 paper, Einstein derived the mass-energy relationship from the Principle of Relativity (PoR, stated in his 1905 Jun 30 paper) and the Principle of Energy (PoE, conservation of energy E = K + U, K: kinetic energy, U: potential energy). Even if he doesn't use the word "potential", he handles very explicitly the "arbitrary additive constants" characteristic of potential energies in 1905 (and even today). He arrives to the conclusion that "The mass of a body is a measure of its energy-content" (in his own words). For a body at rest (kinetic energy K=0, rest mass m_0), this implies E = U = m_0c^2, measuring rest mass its potential energy. But this doesn't seem compatible with the today meaning of rest mass as a body constant intrinsic attribute (maybe this is only valid assuming a constant potential condition). We can also note that in Einstein's conclusion disappears the "arbitrary additive constants", emerging the m_0=0 condition as an ABSOLUTE zero potential point (and for all kind of energies present at the same time). By sure all of this is sufficient to open an interesting debate (I hope so). RVHG This is why I wish people would stop focusing on the 1905 version of relativity and worry more about the 2007 version that is actually used. There is nothing to be gained in arguing about this. Eric he pops up every now and then bringing up the same old rehashed stuff. He utterly fails to understand potential energy is a classical concept not applicable to relativity - and obviously so because since the potential function depends only spatial coordinates it implies instantaneous transmission of forces which is not allowed in relativity. Thanks Bill |
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#6
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On Mar 16, 8:47 am, wrote:
In his 1905 Sep 27 paper, Einstein derived the mass-energy relationship from the Principle of Relativity (PoR, stated in his 1905 Jun 30 paper) and the Principle of Energy (PoE, conservation of energy E = K + U, K: kinetic energy, U: potential energy). Even if he doesn't use the word "potential", he handles very explicitly the "arbitrary additive constants" characteristic of potential energies in 1905 (and even today). He arrives to the conclusion that "The mass of a body is a measure of its energy-content" (in his own words). For a body at rest (kinetic energy K=0, rest mass m_0), this implies E = U = m_0c^2, measuring rest mass its potential energy. But this doesn't seem compatible with the today meaning of rest mass as a body constant intrinsic attribute (maybe this is only valid assuming a constant potential condition). We can also note that in Einstein's conclusion disappears the "arbitrary additive constants", emerging the m_0=0 condition as an ABSOLUTE zero potential point (and for all kind of energies present at the same time). By sure all of this is sufficient to open an interesting debate (I hope so). RVHG xxein: We have a database to go beyond present theories. Why are you still arguing concepts of the past? |
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#7
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On 17 mar, 18:43, wrote:
On Mar 16, 8:47 am, wrote: In his 1905 Sep 27 paper, Einstein derived the mass-energy relationship from the Principle of Relativity (PoR, stated in his 1905 Jun 30 paper) and the Principle of Energy (PoE, conservation of energy E = K + U, K: kinetic energy, U: potential energy). Even if he doesn't use the word "potential", he handles very explicitly the "arbitrary additive constants" characteristic of potential energies in 1905 (and even today). He arrives to the conclusion that "The mass of a body is a measure of its energy-content" (in his own words). For a body at rest (kinetic energy K=0, rest mass m_0), this implies E = U = m_0c^2, measuring rest mass its potential energy. But this doesn't seem compatible with the today meaning of rest mass as a body constant intrinsic attribute (maybe this is only valid assuming a constant potential condition). We can also note that in Einstein's conclusion disappears the "arbitrary additive constants", emerging the m_0=0 condition as an ABSOLUTE zero potential point (and for all kind of energies present at the same time). By sure all of this is sufficient to open an interesting debate (I hope so). RVHG xxein: We have a database to go beyond present theories. Why are you still arguing concepts of the past?- Ocultar texto de la cita - - Mostrar texto de la cita - When you write "concepts of the past" you mean "wrong concepts"? In any case, they are not my concepts, but Einstein's ones (or used by Einstein in 1905). I am referring to an historic fact, Einstein use PoR and PoE to derive the mass-energy relationship. Are any of the premises (PoR and PoE) considered wrong today? Or perhaps the derived mass-energy relationship? But if all is O.K. in Einstein's paper, we can continue making deductions from it, as the one I mentioned about being rest mass an absolute measure of all kind of potential energies. RVHG |
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#8
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On Mar 19, 6:04 am, wrote:
On 17 mar, 18:43, wrote: On Mar 16, 8:47 am, wrote: In his 1905 Sep 27 paper, Einstein derived the mass-energy relationship from the Principle of Relativity (PoR, stated in his 1905 Jun 30 paper) and the Principle of Energy (PoE, conservation of energy E = K + U, K: kinetic energy, U: potential energy). Even if he doesn't use the word "potential", he handles very explicitly the "arbitrary additive constants" characteristic of potential energies in 1905 (and even today). He arrives to the conclusion that "The mass of a body is a measure of its energy-content" (in his own words). For a body at rest (kinetic energy K=0, rest mass m_0), this implies E = U = m_0c^2, measuring rest mass its potential energy. But this doesn't seem compatible with the today meaning of rest mass as a body constant intrinsic attribute (maybe this is only valid assuming a constant potential condition). We can also note that in Einstein's conclusion disappears the "arbitrary additive constants", emerging the m_0=0 condition as an ABSOLUTE zero potential point (and for all kind of energies present at the same time). By sure all of this is sufficient to open an interesting debate (I hope so). RVHG xxein: We have a database to go beyond present theories. Why are you still arguing concepts of the past?- Ocultar texto de la cita - - Mostrar texto de la cita - When you write "concepts of the past" you mean "wrong concepts"? In any case, they are not my concepts, but Einstein's ones (or used by Einstein in 1905). I am referring to an historic fact, Einstein use PoR and PoE to derive the mass-energy relationship. Are any of the premises (PoR and PoE) considered wrong today? Or perhaps the derived mass-energy relationship? But if all is O.K. in Einstein's paper, we can continue making deductions from it, as the one I mentioned about being rest mass an absolute measure of all kind of potential energies. RVHG- Hide quoted text - - Show quoted text - What in the explanation that you received earlier about the inaplicability of potential energy in relativity is that you don't understand? Ah, you are somebody so idiotic as to live in Cuba in these days ...... |
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#9
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On 16 mar, 07:57, "Eric Gisse" wrote:
On Mar 16, 4:47 am, wrote: In his 1905 Sep 27 paper, Einstein derived the mass-energy relationship from the Principle of Relativity (PoR, stated in his 1905 Jun 30 paper) and the Principle of Energy (PoE, conservation of energy E = K + U, K: kinetic energy, U: potential energy). Even if he doesn't use the word "potential", he handles very explicitly the "arbitrary additive constants" characteristic of potential energies in 1905 (and even today). He arrives to the conclusion that "The mass of a body is a measure of its energy-content" (in his own words). For a body at rest (kinetic energy K=0, rest mass m_0), this implies E = U = m_0c^2, measuring rest mass its potential energy. But this doesn't seem compatible with the today meaning of rest mass as a body constant intrinsic attribute (maybe this is only valid assuming a constant potential condition). We can also note that in Einstein's conclusion disappears the "arbitrary additive constants", emerging the m_0=0 condition as an ABSOLUTE zero potential point (and for all kind of energies present at the same time). By sure all of this is sufficient to open an interesting debate (I hope so). RVHG This is why I wish people would stop focusing on the 1905 version of relativity and worry more about the 2007 version that is actually used. There is nothing to be gained in arguing about this.- Ocultar texto de la cita - - Mostrar texto de la cita - (Third time that I try to answer) Nothing to be gained? Why are you so sure? Both PoR and PoE are considered valid today. If from them Einstein derived some result considered wrong in 2007, by sure an explanation is needed. Let's go to 1905 Sep 27. Consider a material point of mass M with the gravitational potential -GM/r (r radial distance from the point, potential energy U(inf) for a body of mass m_om considered 0 at infinite=inf). Changing the zero potential point to the ABSOLUTE one discovered by Einstein, we have the following. U(inf)=m_0m c^2. At a distance r the body has rest mass m_0 with potential energy U(r)=m_0 c^2. We have then U(r)= m_om c^2 - (GM/r)m_0 = m_0 c^2, from where we can obtain m_0=m_om(1+GM/rc^2). I suppose you can recognize the characteristic General Relativity factor (but now obtained using only 1905 Relativity!). If m_0m is the "free" electron rest mass, the Pound&Rebca experiment is explained using only 1905 Relativity (because emitted frequency is proportional to electron rest mass, now the variable m_0). I can advance you that also correct Mercury perihelium calculations can be made using only 1905 Relativity, among others. I will end with a question to you. Is changing the mass of a free falling body? Maybe you can find an easy answer using 1905 Relativity. RVHG (Rafael Valls Hidalgo-Gato) |
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#10
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On Mar 19, 12:58 pm, wrote:
On 16 mar, 07:57, "EricGisse" wrote: On Mar 16, 4:47 am, wrote: In his 1905 Sep 27 paper, Einstein derived the mass-energy relationship from the Principle of Relativity (PoR, stated in his 1905 Jun 30 paper) and the Principle of Energy (PoE, conservation of energy E = K + U, K: kinetic energy, U: potential energy). Even if he doesn't use the word "potential", he handles very explicitly the "arbitrary additive constants" characteristic of potential energies in 1905 (and even today). He arrives to the conclusion that "The mass of a body is a measure of its energy-content" (in his own words). For a body at rest (kinetic energy K=0, rest mass m_0), this implies E = U = m_0c^2, measuring rest mass its potential energy. But this doesn't seem compatible with the today meaning of rest mass as a body constant intrinsic attribute (maybe this is only valid assuming a constant potential condition). We can also note that in Einstein's conclusion disappears the "arbitrary additive constants", emerging the m_0=0 condition as an ABSOLUTE zero potential point (and for all kind of energies present at the same time). By sure all of this is sufficient to open an interesting debate (I hope so). RVHG This is why I wish people would stop focusing on the 1905 version of relativity and worry more about the 2007 version that is actually used. There is nothing to be gained in arguing about this.- Ocultar texto de la cita - - Mostrar texto de la cita - (Third time that I try to answer) Nothing to be gained? Why are you so sure? Both PoR and PoE are considered valid today. If from them Einstein derived some result considered wrong in 2007, by sure an explanation is needed. Let's go to 1905 Sep 27. Consider a material point of mass M with the gravitational potential -GM/r [...] Dead on arrival. |
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