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| Tags: barrier, entanglement, lightspeed, quantum, violation |
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#1
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"Bilge" wrote in message ... Aidan Smoker: Hi there all, I found this discussion on Fermilab's web pages about the quantum action-at-a-distance phenomena. Even as a scientist I find it an unsatisfying explanation or resolution of the EPR paradox. Think about what's happening. You measure a photon polarization. In doing so, what have you discovered? Nothing apart from the polarization you just measured. Nothing about that measurement involves a signal propagating faster than light. Exactly. As one article I read on it said (http://quantum.phys.cmu.edu/quest.html); say we put a black card in an envelope and a white card in another. We send each to a physicist who does not know which one they receive. When say physicist A opens the envelope and sees say a white card does this send an instantaneous message to the envelope with the black card - of course not. Same with EPR - nothing about measuring the polarization of a photon involves a signal propagating faster than light. Just for the record I side with the primary state diffusion interpretation of QM (http://arxiv.org/abs/quant-ph/9508021) because it is experimentally distinguishable from others - which is something I always find appealing. It may have been experimentally refuted by now -in which case my support goes down the drain - but such is life Thanks Bill |
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#2
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"Bill Hobba" schrieb Think about what's happening. You measure a photon polarization. In doing so, what have you discovered? Nothing apart from the polarization you just measured. Nothing about that measurement involves a signal propagating faster than light. Exactly. As one article I read on it said (http://quantum.phys.cmu.edu/quest.html); say we put a black card in an envelope and a white card in another. We send each to a physicist who does not know which one they receive. When say physicist A opens the envelope and sees say a white card does this send an instantaneous message to the envelope with the black card - of course not. Same with EPR - nothing about measuring the polarization of a photon involves a signal propagating faster than light. You have not understood the problem with EPR-Bell. What you describe here with cards in envelopes _is_ a local hidden variable explanation of the correlation. But the correlations in Bell's inequality are of different type - an explanation in terms of envelopes and card does not exist, except you assume that one of the envelopes may be send FTL. Thus, "same with EPR" is clearly nonsense. Ilja |
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#3
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"Bill Hobba" a écrit dans le message de
... "Bilge" wrote in message ... Aidan Smoker: I found this discussion on Fermilab's web pages about the quantum action-at-a-distance phenomena. Even as a scientist I find it an unsatisfying explanation or resolution of the EPR paradox. Bilge Think about what's happening. You measure a photon polarization. In doing so, what have you discovered? Nothing apart from the polarization you just measured. Nothing about that measurement involves a signal propagating faster than light. Bill Hobba Exactly. As one article I read on it said (http://quantum.phys.cmu.edu/quest.html); say we put a black card in an envelope and a white card in another. We send each to a physicist who does not know which one they receive. When say physicist A opens the envelope and sees say a white card does this send an instantaneous message to the envelope with the black card - of course not. Same with EPR Chaverondier No. This explanation is a local Hidden variable interpretation which has been discarded by the violation of Bell's inequalities. To better understand this point * Let us consider a polarizer which is oriented at an angle alpha * Let us label the measured polarisation +1 if the measured polarization of a photon by this polarizer is alpha. * Lets us label the measured polarisation -1 if the measured polarization is alpha+pi/2 Then, the probability to measure a polarization +1 on the "far" side (if a -1 polarization has been observed on the "local" side) depends on the orientation of the _"local"_ polarizer (with regard to orientation of the far one). This probability is 100% only if the "far" polarizer has same orientation than the "local" one. So, the "far" photon behaviour depends on the orientation of the "local" polarizer when the "local" photon polarization is measured (with regard to the orientation of the "far" polarizer when the far measurment is performed) However, if quantum indeterminacy is assumed to be fundamental, then the local observer cannot bias quantum measurement statistics (Born rule) and consequently cannot influence the statistics of the far photons measurements. Hence, quantum indeterminacy is a sufficient hypothesis to preserve the compatibility of relativist locality with quantum no-locality. An even better understanding of quantum non locality can be achieved if you study the Greenberg, Horn and Zeilinger thought experiment with three particules A, B and C of spin 1/2 in maximal intrication state ie |psi = (|++++|---)/2^(1/2) where + and - denote spin along the z direction In this experiment, there no inequalities are involved. There are only equalities that prove a local spin measurement to depend on the orientation of the "far" polarizers. Bill Hobba Just for the record I side with the primary state diffusion interpretation of QM (http://arxiv.org/abs/quant-ph/9508021) because it is experimentally distinguishable from others - which is something I always find appealing. It may have been experimentally refuted by now -in which case my support goes down the drain - but such is life Chaverondier This proves your scientific curiosity to exeed other motivations. I share this way of mind. Bernard Chaverondier http://perso.wanadoo.fr/lebigbang/epr.htm Quantum determinacy or relativist locality. |
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#4
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"Ilja Schmelzer" wrote in message ... "Bill Hobba" schrieb Think about what's happening. You measure a photon polarization. In doing so, what have you discovered? Nothing apart from the polarization you just measured. Nothing about that measurement involves a signal propagating faster than light. Exactly. As one article I read on it said (http://quantum.phys.cmu.edu/quest.html); say we put a black card in an envelope and a white card in another. We send each to a physicist who does not know which one they receive. When say physicist A opens the envelope and sees say a white card does this send an instantaneous message to the envelope with the black card - of course not. Same with EPR - nothing about measuring the polarization of a photon involves a signal propagating faster than light. You have not understood the problem with EPR-Bell. Perhaps - but I have read quite a bit on it and worked through the derivations myself. What you describe here with cards in envelopes _is_ a local hidden variable explanation of the correlation. But the correlations in Bell's inequality are of different type - an explanation in terms of envelopes and card does not exist, except you assume that one of the envelopes may be send FTL. Thus, "same with EPR" is clearly nonsense. Not according to Griffith's who claims in the consistent histories approach - an approach I have some aquatintance with - it is the exact analogue of the card situation I describe. This is supposed to be detailed in the paper 'Correlations in separated quantum systems: a consistent history analysis of the EPR problem," Am. J. Phys. 55 (1987)' which does not seem to be available online. I will try and dig up some online reference that provides the detail of the claim. Thanks Bill Ilja |
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#5
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"bernard.chaverondier" wrote in message ... "Bill Hobba" a écrit dans le message de ... "Bilge" wrote in message ... Aidan Smoker: I found this discussion on Fermilab's web pages about the quantum action-at-a-distance phenomena. Even as a scientist I find it an unsatisfying explanation or resolution of the EPR paradox. Bilge Think about what's happening. You measure a photon polarization. In doing so, what have you discovered? Nothing apart from the polarization you just measured. Nothing about that measurement involves a signal propagating faster than light. Bill Hobba Exactly. As one article I read on it said (http://quantum.phys.cmu.edu/quest.html); say we put a black card in an envelope and a white card in another. We send each to a physicist who does not know which one they receive. When say physicist A opens the envelope and sees say a white card does this send an instantaneous message to the envelope with the black card - of course not. Same with EPR Chaverondier No. This explanation is a local Hidden variable interpretation which has been discarded by the violation of Bell's inequalities. See my response to Ilja - the claim is made that in the consistent histories approach it is the exact analogue. The paper that is supposed to support it is 'Correlations in separated quantum systems: a consistent history analysis of the EPR problem," Am. J. Phys. 55 (1987) 11.'. It is not available online but I will attempt to discover an online analysis. Thanks Bill To better understand this point * Let us consider a polarizer which is oriented at an angle alpha * Let us label the measured polarisation +1 if the measured polarization of a photon by this polarizer is alpha. * Lets us label the measured polarisation -1 if the measured polarization is alpha+pi/2 Then, the probability to measure a polarization +1 on the "far" side (if a -1 polarization has been observed on the "local" side) depends on the orientation of the _"local"_ polarizer (with regard to orientation of the far one). This probability is 100% only if the "far" polarizer has same orientation than the "local" one. So, the "far" photon behaviour depends on the orientation of the "local" polarizer when the "local" photon polarization is measured (with regard to the orientation of the "far" polarizer when the far measurment is performed) However, if quantum indeterminacy is assumed to be fundamental, then the local observer cannot bias quantum measurement statistics (Born rule) and consequently cannot influence the statistics of the far photons measurements. Hence, quantum indeterminacy is a sufficient hypothesis to preserve the compatibility of relativist locality with quantum no-locality. An even better understanding of quantum non locality can be achieved if you study the Greenberg, Horn and Zeilinger thought experiment with three particules A, B and C of spin 1/2 in maximal intrication state ie |psi = (|++++|---)/2^(1/2) where + and - denote spin along the z direction In this experiment, there no inequalities are involved. There are only equalities that prove a local spin measurement to depend on the orientation of the "far" polarizers. Bill Hobba Just for the record I side with the primary state diffusion interpretation of QM (http://arxiv.org/abs/quant-ph/9508021) because it is experimentally distinguishable from others - which is something I always find appealing. It may have been experimentally refuted by now -in which case my support goes down the drain - but such is life Chaverondier This proves your scientific curiosity to exeed other motivations. I share this way of mind. Bernard Chaverondier http://perso.wanadoo.fr/lebigbang/epr.htm Quantum determinacy or relativist locality. |
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#6
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"Bill Hobba" wrote in message ... "Ilja Schmelzer" wrote in message ... "Bill Hobba" schrieb Think about what's happening. You measure a photon polarization. In doing so, what have you discovered? Nothing apart from the polarization you just measured. Nothing about that measurement involves a signal propagating faster than light. Exactly. As one article I read on it said (http://quantum.phys.cmu.edu/quest.html); say we put a black card in an envelope and a white card in another. We send each to a physicist who does not know which one they receive. When say physicist A opens the envelope and sees say a white card does this send an instantaneous message to the envelope with the black card - of course not. Same with EPR - nothing about measuring the polarization of a photon involves a signal propagating faster than light. You have not understood the problem with EPR-Bell. Perhaps - but I have read quite a bit on it and worked through the derivations myself. What you describe here with cards in envelopes _is_ a local hidden variable explanation of the correlation. But the correlations in Bell's inequality are of different type - an explanation in terms of envelopes and card does not exist, except you assume that one of the envelopes may be send FTL. Thus, "same with EPR" is clearly nonsense. Not according to Griffith's who claims in the consistent histories approach - an approach I have some aquatintance with - it is the exact analogue of the card situation I describe. This is supposed to be detailed in the paper 'Correlations in separated quantum systems: a consistent history analysis of the EPR problem," Am. J. Phys. 55 (1987)' which does not seem to be available online. I will try and dig up some online reference that provides the detail of the claim. Trying to locate the detail online for the above claim proved a total failure. The best I could do is the information given in the link I had already provided: 'Einstein, Podolsky, and Rosen (EPR) in a celebrated paper [2] showed that by measuring the property of some system A located far away from another system B one can, under suitable conditions, infer something about the system B. By itself the possibility of such an indirect measurement is not at all surprising, as one can see from the following example. Colored slips of paper, one red and one green, are placed in two opaque envelopes, which are then mailed to scientists in Atlanta and Boston. The scientist who opens the envelope in Atlanta and finds a red slip of paper can immediately infer, given the experimental protocol, the color of the slip of paper contained in the envelope in Boston, whether or not it has already been opened. There is nothing peculiar going on, and in particular there is no mysterious influence of one "measurement" on the other slip of paper. The quantum mechanical situation considered by EPR is more complicated than indicated by this example in that one has the possibility of measuring more than one property of system A and also considering more than one property of system B. However, when one does a proper analysis [3], the conclusion is just the same as in the "classical" case of the colored slips of paper.' Thus I have to rely on my recollection of how consistent histories get around it. So at the risk of totally stuffing it up here goes. In consistent histories everything must be analyzed using the concept of framework that is decided upon considering the context of the experimental set up. For EPR type experiments the framework consists of a photon being up and the other down and conversely - this is the only possible framework. In the approach no wave function collapse is required - (an overview is given here http://quantum.phys.cmu.edu/CQT/chap1.pdf): 'Wave function collapse or reduction, discussed in Sec. 18.2, is not needed for a consistent quantum theory of measurement, as its role is taken over by a suitable use of conditional probabilities. To put the matter in a different way, wave function collapse is one method for computing conditional probabilities that can be obtained equally well using other methods. Various conceptual difficulties disappear when one realizes that collapse is something which takes place in the theoretical physicist's notebook and not in the experimental physicist's laboratory. In particular, there is no physical process taking place instantaneously over a long distance, in conflict with relativity theory.' I recognize the above is very unsatisfactory support of my claim but it is the best I can find. I am sorely tempted to get Griffith book on the matter (it is a book I have been manning to get for a while - it is just so expensive). Thanks Bill Thanks Bill Ilja |
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#7
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"Bill Hobba" a écrit dans le message de
... "Ilja Schmelzer" wrote in message ... "Bill Hobba" schrieb Think about what's happening. You measure a photon polarization. In doing so, what have you discovered? Nothing apart from the polarization you just measured. Nothing about that measurement involves a signal propagating faster than light. Exactly. As one article I read on it said (http://quantum.phys.cmu.edu/quest.html) I had a look to that link. The idea of the author is that the quantum measurement is a stochastic process (which I believe). However, this doesn't contradict (in my opinion) the possibility that it be nevertheless a (chaotic) deterministic process and I don't see how it could discard the (at least) kinematical non-local nature of Bell's inequalities violation. The question of the Bell's inequalities is not talked about into some details, so that it is not possible to see exactly what is his interpretation of Bell's ineqalities violation. Whatever this interpretation, the example of the black and white card sent in two enveloppes is at least misleading because it cancels the change of correlation induced by the relative orientation of the two polarizers at the moment of the measurement (the correlation between the two measured polarizations is not 100% in any case. This correlation depends on the relative orientation of the polarizers at the moment when the polarization is measured). Trying to locate the detail online for the above claim proved a total failure. The best I could do is the information given in the link I had already provided You need to provide a detailed analysis of Bell's inequalities violation (denying them any non-locality and defining precisely what means this assumed absence of non-locality) Though I can hardly believe it, I would read such details with care if you were to provide an other interpretation in the framework of the decoherent histories interpretation of QM. Moreover, you have to provide the same type of justification in the case of the even more puzzling non-locality of the Greenberg Horn and Zeilinger thought experiment which needs no inequalities. In this experiment quantum non-locality shows up in a deterministic manner (no statistical considerations at all are needed so that I cannot see where any stochastic justification can enter the play). In that thought experiment spin 1/2 particles A, B and C are considered in maximal spin entanglement state |psi = (|++++|---)/2^(1/2) (where + and - denote spins along z direction). The spin measurements Ax, Bx and Cx of particles A, B and C along direction x depends in a deterministic manner on the direction of the polarizers measuring the spin of the other particules, ie * if Ax is measured simultaneously with By and Cy * if Bx is measured simultaneously with Ay and Cy * if Cx is measured simultaneously with Ay and By then QM predicts that the product Ax Bx Cx = 1 On the contrary if Ax, Bx, Cx are simultaneously measured then QM predicts that the product Ax Bx Cx = - 1 So, the measurements of the spins Ax, Bx, Cx depends critically on the orientation of the measuring apparatuses of the spin of the other particles when these spin measurements along x are performed. So I am waiting for a much more detailed definition of what you mean by no QM non-locality and a detailed explanation of your claim in the framework of decoherent history interpretation which you seem to invoke to support your claim. Bernard Chaverondier http://perso.wanadoo.fr/lebigbang Compatibility of Alain Aspect experiment interpretation as an action at a distance with a formulation of relativist invariance (of phenomena that actually satisfy this invariance) in the framework of Aristotle space-time. |
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#8
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"bernard.chaverondier" wrote in message ... "Bill Hobba" a écrit dans le message de ... "Ilja Schmelzer" wrote in message ... "Bill Hobba" schrieb Think about what's happening. You measure a photon polarization. In doing so, what have you discovered? Nothing apart from the polarization you just measured. Nothing about that measurement involves a signal propagating faster than light. Exactly. As one article I read on it said (http://quantum.phys.cmu.edu/quest.html) I had a look to that link. The idea of the author is that the quantum measurement is a stochastic process (which I believe). However, this doesn't contradict (in my opinion) the possibility that it be nevertheless a (chaotic) deterministic process and I don't see how it could discard the (at least) kinematical non-local nature of Bell's inequalities violation. The question of the Bell's inequalities is not talked about into some details, so that it is not possible to see exactly what is his interpretation of Bell's ineqalities violation. Whatever this interpretation, the example of the black and white card sent in two enveloppes is at least misleading because it cancels the change of correlation induced by the relative orientation of the two polarizers at the moment of the measurement (the correlation between the two measured polarizations is not 100% in any case. This correlation depends on the relative orientation of the polarizers at the moment when the polarization is measured). Trying to locate the detail online for the above claim proved a total failure. The best I could do is the information given in the link I had already provided You need to provide a detailed analysis of Bell's inequalities violation (denying them any non-locality and defining precisely what means this assumed absence of non-locality) I agree entirely. I have been interested in the consistent histories interpretation for a while and read some articles on it but could not locate the one that details its EPR analysis. At this point the out I think it uses has to do with the acceptance of a single framework to describe any experimental situation. Under that assumption you have defined your set up to be the analogue of the card situation. The heart of the consistent histories approach would seem that such an assumption is allowable. Though I can hardly believe it, I would read such details with care if you were to provide an other interpretation in the framework of the decoherent histories interpretation of QM. I am afraid that would need for me to fork out the money for Griffiths book. I am tempted, very tempted, but for personnel reasons that are not really in scope for this newsgroup I do not want to make any major purchases at present (its cheapest price is $88 US which would be about $130 Australian ). I do intend to purchase a copy eventually so I think the best I can promise is to post the exact analysis at that time. Thanks Bill Moreover, you have to provide the same type of justification in the case of the even more puzzling non-locality of the Greenberg Horn and Zeilinger thought experiment which needs no inequalities. In this experiment quantum non-locality shows up in a deterministic manner (no statistical considerations at all are needed so that I cannot see where any stochastic justification can enter the play). In that thought experiment spin 1/2 particles A, B and C are considered in maximal spin entanglement state |psi = (|++++|---)/2^(1/2) (where + and - denote spins along z direction). The spin measurements Ax, Bx and Cx of particles A, B and C along direction x depends in a deterministic manner on the direction of the polarizers measuring the spin of the other particules, ie * if Ax is measured simultaneously with By and Cy * if Bx is measured simultaneously with Ay and Cy * if Cx is measured simultaneously with Ay and By then QM predicts that the product Ax Bx Cx = 1 On the contrary if Ax, Bx, Cx are simultaneously measured then QM predicts that the product Ax Bx Cx = - 1 So, the measurements of the spins Ax, Bx, Cx depends critically on the orientation of the measuring apparatuses of the spin of the other particles when these spin measurements along x are performed. So I am waiting for a much more detailed definition of what you mean by no QM non-locality and a detailed explanation of your claim in the framework of decoherent history interpretation which you seem to invoke to support your claim. Bernard Chaverondier http://perso.wanadoo.fr/lebigbang Compatibility of Alain Aspect experiment interpretation as an action at a distance with a formulation of relativist invariance (of phenomena that actually satisfy this invariance) in the framework of Aristotle space-time. |
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#9
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"Bill Hobba" schrieb Thus, "same with EPR" is clearly nonsense. Not according to Griffith's who claims in the consistent histories approach - an approach I have some aquatintance with - it is the exact analogue of the card situation I describe. This is supposed to be detailed in the paper 'Correlations in separated quantum systems: a consistent history analysis of the EPR problem," Am. J. Phys. 55 (1987)' which does not seem to be available online. I will try and dig up some online reference that provides the detail of the claim. Trying to locate the detail online for the above claim proved a total failure. The best I could do is the information given in the link I had already provided: "... The quantum mechanical situation considered by EPR is more complicated than indicated by this example in that one has the possibility of measuring more than one property of system A and also considering more than one property of system B. However, when one does a proper analysis [3], the conclusion is just the same as in the "classical" case of the colored slips of paper.' Behind such claims we usually find the conclusion that the correlation cannot be used for information transfer. Moreover, there is a lot of wrong papers written in this domain. Thus I have to rely on my recollection of how consistent histories get around it. Coherent histories (AFAIK, but I have read some papers about it) is an approach which is quite different from classical realism. Thus, something accepted as an "explanation" in consistent histories is not a valid explanation in the sense of classical realism. It is only an incomplete description. In the approach no wave function collapse is required - (an overview is given here http://quantum.phys.cmu.edu/CQT/chap1.pdf): 'Wave function collapse or reduction, discussed in Sec. 18.2, is not needed for a consistent quantum theory of measurement, as its role is taken over by a suitable use of conditional probabilities. To put the matter in a different way, wave function collapse is one method for computing conditional probabilities that can be obtained equally well using other methods. This already points to the problem. CH is about "suitable use" of conditional probabilities. Not about explanation in the usual (classical-realistic) sense. Ilja |
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#10
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"Ilja Schmelzer" wrote in message ... "Bill Hobba" schrieb Thus, "same with EPR" is clearly nonsense. Not according to Griffith's who claims in the consistent histories approach - an approach I have some aquatintance with - it is the exact analogue of the card situation I describe. This is supposed to be detailed in the paper 'Correlations in separated quantum systems: a consistent history analysis of the EPR problem," Am. J. Phys. 55 (1987)' which does not seem to be available online. I will try and dig up some online reference that provides the detail of the claim. Trying to locate the detail online for the above claim proved a total failure. The best I could do is the information given in the link I had already provided: "... The quantum mechanical situation considered by EPR is more complicated than indicated by this example in that one has the possibility of measuring more than one property of system A and also considering more than one property of system B. However, when one does a proper analysis [3], the conclusion is just the same as in the "classical" case of the colored slips of paper.' Behind such claims we usually find the conclusion that the correlation cannot be used for information transfer. Moreover, there is a lot of wrong papers written in this domain. I know you have mentioned this previously (with regard to supposed experimental refutations of Bohm) which is why before discussing the detail I want to examine the paper or standard text myself. I have decided to actually purchase the book today (the Book on Consistent Histories by Griffith) and hopefully will be in a position to post that analysis. BTW I am not a proponent of consistent histories - I hold to primary state diffusion (PSD). But what I like about consistent histories is it looks like Copenhagen done right. If PSD is experimentally disproved then I probably would revert to consistent histories. Indeed, for my posts to this newsgroup, sticking to a specific standard treatment like consistent histories rather than the less conventional PSD may be best. Thus I have to rely on my recollection of how consistent histories get around it. Coherent histories (AFAIK, but I have read some papers about it) is an approach which is quite different from classical realism. It is. Thus, something accepted as an "explanation" in consistent histories is not a valid explanation in the sense of classical realism. It is only an incomplete description. In the approach no wave function collapse is required - (an overview is given here http://quantum.phys.cmu.edu/CQT/chap1.pdf): 'Wave function collapse or reduction, discussed in Sec. 18.2, is not needed for a consistent quantum theory of measurement, as its role is taken over by a suitable use of conditional probabilities. To put the matter in a different way, wave function collapse is one method for computing conditional probabilities that can be obtained equally well using other methods. This already points to the problem. CH is about "suitable use" of conditional probabilities. Not about explanation in the usual (classical-realistic) sense. As I said above I will be purchasing the book today and will post its analysis once I fully understand it. Your input in sorting out what is happening would of course be appreciated. Thanks Bill Ilja |
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