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| Tags: 4space, euclidean, minkowski |
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#2
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(Ken S. Tucker) wrote in message . com...
Well I think you'll have problems with c^dt^2 = g_uv dx^u dx^v being accepted, the solution I have suggested may help you there, (of course if you want you can e-mail me on this), if I can help. O.K. Let's clarify this point; the following was rejected in sci.physics.research. (Jose B. Almeida) wrote in message . com... You can also redefine the proper time tau as c^2dtau2 = dx2 + dy2 + dz2 + c^2dt2 (1) Thanks David for posting this. In different words you are saying very much the same as I said in thread "Euclidean vs. Minkowski 4-space" and in several of my arxiv eprints. I must clarify my position because with most people I also think Eq. (1) is wrong but had it be written c^2dt2 = dx2 + dy2 + dz2 + c^2dtau2 (2) and it would have been right, in spite of the fact that I don't know anyone who shares this opinion. Let me explain with an example: [Moderator's comment: Are you saying that most physicists don't believe equation (2) is right? That's clearly not true: equation (2) is a trivial algebraic rearrangement of the equation below it, which every physicists believes in. Second, I don't understand the point of the argument that makes up the rest of the post. If you're just trying to show that equation (2) is correct, why not do the trivial one step of algebra that derives it from the subsequent equation?] The relativistic interval is given (even for me) by c^2dtau2 = c^2dt2 - dx2 - dy2 - dz2 now consider a test particle moving with velocity v, such that dt = dx/v (3) by straightforward replacement we get, for this particle c^2dtau2 = (c2/v2 -1)dx2 (4) everyone agrees that this represents a straight line on the (x,tau) plane, with slope sqrt(1/v2 - 1/c2); with need only the ordinate at x=0 which we can choose as t0, the time at which the test particle passed at the origin. We then have tau = t0 + sqrt(1/v2 -1/c2) x For this test particle we are allowed to write Eq. (2), as can be verified by replacement with (3) and (4). Now consider any other test particle, with different velocity in any desired direction, and a similar verification can be made. Hence, for all possible test particles Eq.(2) is verified. The Universe can indeed be described in Euclidean 4-space and it looks different from the relativistic description we are used to. Jose PS: If I hadn't read Kafka this would make a good substitute Jose |
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#3
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(Jose B. Almeida) wrote in message . com...
(Ken S. Tucker) wrote in message . com... Sorry to be slow to respond, my mouse went flaky, and can't get another one until Tuesday. Yes, I've used and studied it extensively, IMO it's simpler than the conventional g_tt=1 g_xx=-1, it keeps ds perpendicular to dx dy and dz, which is something you seem to want to do. Where can I get access to your studies? I summarized the concept is this thread... From: (Ken S. Tucker) Newsgroups: sci.physics.relativity Subject: CS group with all time axi parallel. NNTP-Posting-Host: 209.91.148.56 Message-ID: Then I did an acceleration application in this thread... From: (Ken S. Tucker) Newsgroups: sci.physics.relativity Subject: More on Time Axi Parallel CS's NNTP-Posting-Host: 209.91.148.88 Message-ID: Naturally you can post questions or comments to these threads. I'd be happy to elaborate. Well I think you'll have problems with c^dt^2 = g_uv dx^u dx^v being accepted, the solution I have suggested may help you there, (of course if you want you can e-mail me on this), if I can help. You're right in guessing that nobody accepts this solution, nevertheless I think it is a legitimate alternative. The problem is that dt^2 is not invariant but g_uv dx^u dx^v is. If you want 4 orthogonal axes (ds dx dy dt) orthogonal then my suggestion will do that. You may want to have a look at thread "4-dimensional optics". Ok, mouse permitting. Jose Regards Ken S. Tucker |
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