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| Tags: gravity, revisited, speed |
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#281
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Tom Van Flandern wrote:
Steve Carlip writes: [Carlip]: a gravitating object -- call it A -- moving at a constant velocity suddenly stops. What happens to the motion of a test body B a distance R away from the point that A stops? This has nothing to do with the issue on the table, the propagation speed of gravitational force. It concerns only the propagation speed of changes in the gravitational potential field, about which there is no dispute -- it is speed c. We don't need A to be moving, then stop, as in your example. The issue of relevance here is present even when A is permanently at rest and its field is completely static. The direction of the source mass as sensed by an orbiting target body is toward its true instantaneous position when the target body or field point is at rest. And it is toward the source mass's retarded position (retarded by the speed of gravitational force) when the target body is orbiting. That's elementary physics. So you claim that the "gravitational force" in Steve's example is not the "gravitational force" in yours (in general, abstracting away the differences in physical situations). That is ridiculous. You claim Steve's example is "propagation speed of changes in the gravitational potential field". But the gradient of the potential gives the force (in your model), so "gravitational force" also "is speed c" -- either that is true or you disbelieve mathematics. The problem is: your model is inconsistent with "gravitational force" propagating at speed c; but the appropriate approximation to GR is not inconsistent with that, nor is GR itself. But you refuse to distinguish among the THREE models: yours, GR itself, and the approximation to GR (this approximation has been discussed at length, previously). Steve's example is a COUNTEREXAMPLE to your claim "The direction of the source mass as sensed by [the] target body is toward [the source's] true instantaneous position". That is, of course, why he mentioned it. You seem to think that "orbiting" is somehow special, and your claims apply only to that specific physical situation, and not others (such as Steve's). That is ludicrous for what purports to be a general theory. As has been repeatedly pointed out, for the situation you discuss an approximation to GR is valid, and in that approximation the "gravitational force" points directly to the EXTRAPOLATED position of the source. For the situations you consider, that EXTRAPOLATED position is indistinguishable from its present position [#]. But for Steve's situation they are different, and clearly show the error in your claims, WHEN USING THIS APPROXIMATION TO GR. [#] This is why the experiments you cite do not refute GR. Of course Steve was discussing the correct computation in GR itself, not this approximation, and he shows a similar conclusion (no surprise in a regime where this approximation is valid). The exact same statement is equally true if the source mass is moving, then stops (your example). That "move, then stop" distraction just makes a simple problem more complicated. It is not too complicated for sensible people to think about. And it clearly and succinctly refutes your claims about "speed of gravitational force" and the direction of "gravitational force pointing to the source's true instantaneous position" -- in both the approximation to GR I mentioned above, and in Steve's description of a complete computation. I repeat: your basic problem is confusing NG with GR. Indeed, you even confuse NG with this approximation to GR. Address your attention back to the static field problem, a much simpler one, and we will start to make progress. It is not possible to ascribe a "speed" to a static field. That is, in a static situation it simply is not possible to distinguish among models in which "gravitational force" propagates with different speeds, because for any propagation speed whatsoever one obtains the same "gravitational force" and its direction. The other problem is you keep assuming that "gravitational force" is a central force, and in the approximation to GR it simply is not. In GR itself there is no quantity that can be identified as "gravitational force" (though one can make an analogy to components of the connection in Newtonian coordinates). Your claims about the orbiting body are basic math: in the frame of the source the "gravitational force" is central. Transform to the instantaneous rest frame of the orbiting object and of course the "gravitational force" will still point directly at the source. The problem is: this is NOT the math of GR. It is the math of Newtonian gravitation. It is also not the math of the approximation to GR that I am discussing. [Carlip]: In general relativity, you solve this problem as follows ... Most of your message was about this irrelevancy. If applying General Relativity is an "irrelevancy", then you clearly are not doing GR. THAT WAS STEVE'S POINT. And mine. [said to Steve] That said, what cryptic point were you trying to make? His point is: you do not understand GR. Which you repeatedly demonstrate, but refuse to admit. Obviously, there is no legitimate way out of this dilemma. The only "dilemma" is YOURS -- why do you keep claiming you are using GR when you QUITE CLEARLY are not? You repeatedly claim Steve (and I) are ignoring the "physics behind the math". The problem is YOURS, not Steve's or mine -- you are confusing Newtonian gravitation with General Relativity. The physics is DIFFERENT. Until you actually learn about GR, you will remain confused. Tom Roberts |
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#282
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Tom Roberts writes:
[Carlip]: a gravitating object -- call it A -- moving at a constant velocity suddenly stops. What happens to the motion of a test body B a distance R away from the point that A stops? {TomVF]: This has nothing to do with the issue on the table, the propagation speed of gravitational force. It concerns only the propagation speed of changes in the gravitational potential field, about which there is no dispute -- it is speed c. We don't need A to be moving, then stop, as in your example. The issue of relevance here is present even when A is permanently at rest and its field is completely static. The direction of the source mass as sensed by an orbiting target body is toward its true instantaneous position when the target body or field point is at rest. And it is toward the source mass's retarded position (retarded by the speed of gravitational force) when the target body is orbiting. That's elementary physics. [Roberts]: So you claim that the "gravitational force" in Steve's example is not the "gravitational force" in yours (in general, abstracting away the differences in physical situations). That is ridiculous. No, it is not ridiculous, and you are apparently not following the discussion. I objected to Steve's example because it tried to insinuate that my position required field changes to occur faster than light, which no one claims. Gravitational aberration much exist even for perfectly static (unchanging) fields, as well as for fields experiencing a sudden impetus to change, as in Steve's example. So his example serves to obscure the issue, not to clarify it. As is well known, the unique math of GR has more than one physical interpretation. In particular, physics is concerned about the direction of the arrow of causality, whereas math is not. So when we say "force is the gradient of potential", the geometric interpretation of GR simply assumes that the gravitational potential field, as described by the Einstein field equations, governs; and that a gradient in that field causes a force. However, the geometric interpretation of GR is no longer viable because it violates physical principles. So we are forced to adopt the other physical interpretation, that gravitational force induces a gradient into the gravitational potential field. The arrow of causality is reversed. The math, of course, is insensitive to this and remains unchanged. So in Steve's example, when a source mass "A" changes its state of uniform motion (as happens for binary pulsars in their mutual orbits), observations are very clear that the force on distant target bodies changes almost instantly, and always operates in the new direction of A. (Any delay is immeasurably small.) Then this changed force operates on the field, and alters the density of the physical potential field surrounding A. Field changes occur at the speed of light, and eventually conform to the new location and motion of A, but only after a delay, just as the Einstein field equations specify. I gather from our past exchanges that you have not been trained in classical physics, and are familiar only with the geometric interpretation of GR. I highly recommend you broaden your horizons. True understanding of nature cannot be achieved through math alone. You need to study the two different physical interpretations of GR, then come to understand why one of them (the geometric interpretation) is now off the table, and why the other (the field interpretation) makes the physics of gravity easier to understand for everyone. [Roberts]: You claim Steve's example is "propagation speed of changes in the gravitational potential field". But the gradient of the potential gives the force (in your model), so "gravitational force" also "is speed c" -- either that is true or you disbelieve mathematics. The field interpretation of GR existed before I was born, and is therefore not "my model" even though I have published extensively about it. In the field interpretation, the force causes the gradient in the potential field instead of vice versa. The force propagation speed (the "speed of gravity") is much faster than the speed c at which the physical field can change in response to changes in the force. In modern expositions of the field interpretation of GR, the gravitational potential field is synonymous with the light-carrying medium, now called "elysium". Einstein hinted at this, but did not state it quite so clearly. Gravitational force is responsible for most orbital motion (except the perihelion advance), and it makes elysium denser near large masses, just as it does for planetary atmospheres. The special GR effects such as light-bending are then simply refraction in elysium because of this density gradient near masses. This is simple, classical physics, and is well known in the relativity literature. Even Eddington spoke of it in his 1920 book "Space, Time and Gravitation". [Roberts]: The problem is: your model is inconsistent with "gravitational force" propagating at speed c; but the appropriate approximation to GR is not inconsistent with that, nor is GR itself. That statement is flatly wrong. You really need to get yourself straightened out about that point. Ask Steve Carlip or anyone who knows relativistic dynamics. No model that has gravitational forces propagating at speed c can reproduce the orbital motions of the planets. GR itself is about the field, and says nothing about forces without making additional assumptions about the nature of potential gradients. What you call the "approximation" to GR has explicitly instantaneous forces with propagation delay set to zero. The only light-speed propagation delays anywhere in GR occur in the field. But the most important manifestation of propagation delay, gravitational aberration, is set to zero when field gradients are used to calculate forces or when it is applied to an orbiting body. To show otherwise, all you have to do is show where the gravitational aberration exists in the equations of motion. Such a term is easily spotted: It must be proportional to v/v_g, where v is the relative transverse speed of any orbiter and v_g is the speed of gravity, which (you wish to argue) has been set equal to c. No such term exists. Steve Carlip knows that full well, and he argued that some "velocity-dependent term" must exist to cancel gravitational aberration. My 2002 paper with Vigier in Foundations of Physics showed that, while such a hypothesis would be required to conserve angular momentum when forces propagate at speed c, no possible physical justification exists. However, I infer that you would rather continue to hurl insults on USENET than to read the published literature and judge the merits of the arguments for yourself, or possibly even make a useful contribution to the on-going dialogue. [Roberts]: Steve's example is a COUNTEREXAMPLE to your claim "The direction of the source mass as sensed by [the] target body is toward [the source's] true instantaneous position". That is, of course, why he mentioned it. On the contrary, binary pulsars prove that when the source mass accelerates (as in Steve's example), the target body responds almost instantly. Your impression to the contrary is indefensible, and is keeping you from seeing the validity of our criticism of the geometric interpretation of GR. Unless you remedy this knowledge deficit, you will die no wiser than you are now about relativity and the physical nature of gravity. No one in the know challenges the fact that much better than a linear extrapolation of the field is required to explain orbital dynamics. [Roberts]: As has been repeatedly pointed out, for the situation you discuss an approximation to GR is valid, and in that approximation the "gravitational force" points directly to the EXTRAPOLATED position of the source. For the situations you consider, that EXTRAPOLATED position is indistinguishable from its present position [#]. But for Steve's situation they are different, and clearly show the error in your claims, WHEN USING THIS APPROXIMATION TO GR. [#] This is why the experiments you cite do not refute GR. Once again, you are dead wrong on your two major points. (1) For the situations I consider, one of which is binary pulsars, the linearly extrapolated position is easily distinguished from the present position. The difference is major because the accelerations during the light-time between the two stars are large and significant. (2) Please write a reminder to yourself, because this is the nth time I've had to remind you: I do not claim any experiment refutes GR, meaning the mathematical theory. Not one iota of it needs to change. But one of the two physical interpretations of GR (the geometric) that have existed for nearly nine decades is now falsified in favor of the other (the field interpretation). If you don't know or care anything about the physics behind GR, then this change of physical interpretation need not concern you. But then you will never understand what this discussion is about. [Roberts]: I repeat: your basic problem is confusing NG with GR. Indeed, you even confuse NG with this approximation to GR. All of my statements are in a GR context. You seem to be so unfamiliar with the physics behind GR that you are unable to distinguish GR physics from NG physics. If so, that's not my problem; it is something you must remedy. [Roberts]: It is not possible to ascribe a "speed" to a static field. That is, in a static situation it simply is not possible to distinguish among models in which "gravitational force" propagates with different speeds, because for any propagation speed whatsoever one obtains the same "gravitational force" and its direction. When changes are imposed on a static field, they spread out with a certain speed. In the case of the gravitational potential field, that speed is the speed of light. But whether the field is changing at speed c or static with no speed, that has no bearing on gravitational force and its propagation speed. Your statement about gravitational force betrays a lack of understanding of the physics of forces. When two bodies have a relative transverse motion, and a force (or anything else) passes linearly between them at a uniform speed, the receiving body will sense the force approaching from the retarded direction of the source, not its instantaneous direction. That much is unconditionally true. The ratio of the relative transverse speed of the two bodies to the force propagation speed passing between them is called "aberration". If the force appears to come from the instantaneous position of the transmitting body (as it does for gravity), the aberration angle (measuring apparent motion during the light-time) is zero. Since the relative speed is not zero, the force propagation speed must be infinite (or at least very large) to make the aberration speed ratio approximately zero. Again, this basic physics has full generality. When the propagating force is light (e.g., radiation pressure force) and travels at light-speed, the aberration angle is large and easily seen. But for gravity, that aberration angle is zero to the accuracy of our best observations. Hence, the speed of transmission of gravitational force from source to receiver must be much faster than light-speed. It simply does not matter that field changes (if any are needed) happen much slower. [Roberts]: The other problem is you keep assuming that "gravitational force" is a central force, and in the approximation to GR it simply is not. In GR itself there is no quantity that can be identified as "gravitational force" What you call "GR itself" appears to refer to the field equations and their solutions. I agree, these describe only the field, not the forces that form and change that field. Once again, when thinking physics, "field" can be considered a synonym for "light-carrying medium". The GR equations of motion are expressions for the 3-space acceleration of target bodies with respect to source masses. Because "force" is by definition the time rate of change of momentum, and momentum is the product of target mass and target relative velocity, it follows that the force acting on the target body is given by the product of its own mass and the 3-space acceleration from the GR equations of motion. But those equations of motion are based on central forces. Any deviations from central forces are second order in the speed of light (i.e., proportional to 1 / c^2), and are too small to significantly affect aberration or any of the experiments or reasoning I described above. But you know math. You should have been able to see that for yourself, and not raise this straw man argument about central vs. non-central forces as if it had some relevance to this discussion. The difference is too small to affect this discussion by a substantial margin (many orders of magnitude). [Roberts]: Your claims about the orbiting body are basic math: in the frame of the source the "gravitational force" is central. Transform to the instantaneous rest frame of the orbiting object and of course the "gravitational force" will still point directly at the source. This statement refers to a "non-propagating force", something that has no meaning in physics, where forces involve momentum by definition. If a force propagates, then a snapshot of the system with nothing moving is meaningless for understanding its dynamics. For a propagating force, your statement is false. The direction of the force in the rest frame of the orbiting body is the retarded position of the source, not its instantaneous position. If you might benefit from a refresher on propagation delay and aberration, see our animation #4 at http://metaresearch.org/media%20and%...animations.asp [Roberts]: The problem is: this is NOT the math of GR. It is the math of Newtonian gravitation. It is also not the math of the approximation to GR that I am discussing. What I've said here is in a relativistic context, not a Newtonian one. If you choose to define GR so narrowly that relativistic physics, relativistic dynamics, and relativistic celestial mechanics are excluded, that would make your claim that it "is NOT the math of GR" true but of no practical value. [shrug] [Roberts]: you do not understand GR, which you repeatedly demonstrate, but refuse to admit. Then why are my papers published and yours are not? And why do you continue to make claims that are in hard conflict with experimental facts when attempting to show that you understand GR better than I do? [Roberts]: why do you keep claiming you are using GR when you QUITE CLEARLY are not? Perhaps it is because I deal with the real world and you deal with a mathematical idealization for which the only physical interpretation you are familiar with has now been discarded. [Roberts]: You repeatedly claim Steve (and I) are ignoring the "physics behind the math". The problem is YOURS, not Steve's or mine -- you are confusing Newtonian gravitation with General Relativity. The physics is DIFFERENT. Until you actually learn about GR, you will remain confused. In this discussion, one of us is answering every point by addressing observations, experiments, citations, or argumentation. And one of us is simply repeating bold claims without any new attempt to justify them. Shall we let the readers decide which of us matches which description? :-) -|Tom|- Tom Van Flandern - Sequim, WA - see our web site on frontier astronomy research at http://metaresearch.org |
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#283
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Tom Van Flandern wrote:
Steve Carlip writes: [Carlip]: a gravitating object -- call it A -- moving at a constant velocity suddenly stops. What happens to the motion of a test body B a distance R away from the point that A stops? This has nothing to do with the issue on the table, the propagation speed of gravitational force. It concerns only the propagation speed of changes in the gravitational potential field, about which there is no dispute -- it is speed c. So let's stay on topic, please. I said nothing about potential fields. I asked, what happens to the actual, physical motion of the test body? We don't need A to be moving, then stop, as in your example. The issue of relevance here is present even when A is permanently at rest and its field is completely static. Clearly not... Otherwise, you would not have gotten the answer to my question so wrong. The direction of the source mass as sensed by an orbiting target body is toward its true instantaneous position when the target body or field point is at rest. And it is toward the source mass's retarded position (retarded by the speed of gravitational force) when the target body is orbiting. That's elementary physics. The exact same statement is equally true if the source mass is moving, then stops (your example). That "move, then stop" distraction just makes a simple problem more complicated. Tom, this is simply wrong. According to general relativity, when the source mass stops, the acceleration of the test body will continue to track its "extrapolated" motion, until a time equal to the light-travel time from the source to the test body, at which point the acceleration will rapidly swing back to the actual direction of the source mass. This isn't a guess or an opinion. It's a calculation. Stop talking through your hat, and do the math! [Carlip]: In general relativity, you solve this problem as follows ... Most of your message was about this irrelevancy. But we have no issues between us about the math. Clearly not... Otherwise, you would not have gotten the answer to my question so wrong. The part of my message that you deleted described the way to do the calculation. If you agree with it -- if you really think "we have no issues between us about the math" -- then stop guessing. Just sit down and do the calculation. I've told you how to do it, and even given you references to places where you can look up the hard bits. Let me repeat the basic steps: 1. Write down a stress-energy tensor for the gravitating source. (Of course, you have to include all sources -- if A stops because it hits a wall, you'd better include the field of the wall as well.) 2. Solve the Einstein field equations to determine the metric, given this stress-energy tensor. (There are nice existence and uniqueness theorems, going back to Yvonne Choquet-Bruhat's work in the '50s, that guarantee that this can be done, although in practice you often need an approximation procedure.) 3. Given the metric from step 2, write down the geodesic equations. (Once you have the metric, these are unique.) 4. Solve the geodesic equations to determine the motion of body B. (Here, the existence and uniqueness theorems are centuries old; given an initial position and velocity for B, the equations uniquely determine its future motion.) Do you agree? If you don't agree, tell me exactly which step you disagree with, and why. If you do agree, then just *do the damn math*. Steve Carlip |
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On Jul 26, 1:53*am, wrote:
Let me repeat the basic steps: 1. *Write down a stress-energy tensor for the gravitating source. *(Of course, you have to include all sources -- if A stops because it hits a wall, you'd better include the field of the wall as well.) 2. *Solve the Einstein field equations to determine the metric, given this stress-energy tensor. *(There are nice existence and uniqueness theorems, going back to Yvonne Choquet-Bruhat's work in the '50s, that guarantee that this can be done, although in practice you often need an approximation procedure.) 3. *Given the metric from step 2, write down the geodesic equations. (Once you have the metric, these are unique.) 4. *Solve the geodesic equations to determine the motion of body B. (Here, the existence and uniqueness theorems are centuries old; given an initial position and velocity for B, the equations uniquely determine its future motion.) Steve Carlip Never giving up hope? :^) On Jul 24, 12:02 am, "Tom Van Flandern" wrote: On the contrary, binary pulsars prove that when the source mass accelerates (as in Steve's example), the target body responds almost instantly. I'm a bit surprised to see that this discussion is still going on. The EM case is much simpler with the essentially same result. Did you ever try to derive the direction of the E-field from a moving charge? I wrote a derivation of the Lienard-Wiechert potentials in chapter 2 of my book which is step-by-step with comments he http://physics-quest.org/Book_Chapte...rentzContr.pdf See section (2.10). Regards, Hans http://physics-quest.org |
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#285
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Hi Steve, Tom and all.
On Jul 25, 4:53 pm, wrote: Tom Van Flandern wrote: Steve Carlip writes: [Carlip]: a gravitating object -- call it A -- moving at a constant velocity suddenly stops. What happens to the motion of a test body B a distance R away from the point that A stops? This has nothing to do with the issue on the table, the propagation speed of gravitational force. It concerns only the propagation speed of changes in the gravitational potential field, about which there is no dispute -- it is speed c. So let's stay on topic, please. I said nothing about potential fields. I asked, what happens to the actual, physical motion of the test body? We don't need A to be moving, then stop, as in your example. The issue of relevance here is present even when A is permanently at rest and its field is completely static. Clearly not... Otherwise, you would not have gotten the answer to my question so wrong. The direction of the source mass as sensed by an orbiting target body is toward its true instantaneous position when the target body or field point is at rest. And it is toward the source mass's retarded position (retarded by the speed of gravitational force) when the target body is orbiting. That's elementary physics. The exact same statement is equally true if the source mass is moving, then stops (your example). That "move, then stop" distraction just makes a simple problem more complicated. Tom, this is simply wrong. According to general relativity, when the source mass stops, the acceleration of the test body will continue to track its "extrapolated" motion, until a time equal to the light-travel time from the source to the test body, at which point the acceleration will rapidly swing back to the actual direction of the source mass. This isn't a guess or an opinion. It's a calculation. Stop talking through your hat, and do the math! [Carlip]: In general relativity, you solve this problem as follows ... Most of your message was about this irrelevancy. But we have no issues between us about the math. Clearly not... Otherwise, you would not have gotten the answer to my question so wrong. The part of my message that you deleted described the way to do the calculation. If you agree with it -- if you really think "we have no issues between us about the math" -- then stop guessing. Just sit down and do the calculation. I've told you how to do it, and even given you references to places where you can look up the hard bits. Let me repeat the basic steps: 1. Write down a stress-energy tensor for the gravitating source. (Of course, you have to include all sources -- if A stops because it hits a wall, you'd better include the field of the wall as well.) 2. Solve the Einstein field equations to determine the metric, given this stress-energy tensor. (There are nice existence and uniqueness theorems, going back to Yvonne Choquet-Bruhat's work in the '50s, that guarantee that this can be done, although in practice you often need an approximation procedure.) 3. Given the metric from step 2, write down the geodesic equations. (Once you have the metric, these are unique.) 4. Solve the geodesic equations to determine the motion of body B. (Here, the existence and uniqueness theorems are centuries old; given an initial position and velocity for B, the equations uniquely determine its future motion.) Do you agree? If you don't agree, tell me exactly which step you disagree with, and why. If you do agree, then just *do the damn math*. Steve Carlip On Apr.8 in this thread I posted a complete geometry and tensor algebra based on GR, so you fella's know where I stand. I can suggest a means of resolution by experiment, but it is complicated so stay with me on the bends. As means of introduction, suppose the Sun was to instantly convert to light energy. Since Earth is in free-fall, that event (aside from the flash) would be undetectable by gravitation except by a tidal variation. (4th rank RC-tensor R_abcd). Either Steve or Tom may predict when that tidal variation could be detected. Next, the operating term is "tidal", we know the math. Suppose we examine the geodesy of a satellite in a normally circular orbit, orbiting Earth. The gravitational effect of the Sun will cause a tidal effect on the orbit of that satellite, such that the circular orbit will be pulled to an ellipse. The semi-major axis of that elliptical orbit will point to either the "absolute" position of the Sun as Flandern predicts or it will point to the "apparent" position of the Sun as Tucker and Carlip predict. The diff between those two predicted axes is ~ 20" arc. I wonder if a close look at the geodesy of GP-b might distinguish between the two? (Yes I know the Moon's an issue). The data base exists, 1st guy to tease out the data accurately gets my nomination for a Nobel. What I'm pointing out to Steve and Tom is the means to experimentally resolve this ongoing argument, prior to them sitting in an old folks home throwing false teeth at each other. Best Regards Ken S. Tucker |
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wrote in message ... On Jul 26, 1:53 am, wrote: ...... Hans. I noticed that you didn't answer the question that I asked you. May I be so bold as to ask why? Pete |
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On Jul 26, 7:34*pm, "Pmb" wrote:
Hans. I noticed that you didn't answer the question that I asked you. May I be so bold as to ask why? Pete Hi, Pete. Which question was that? Would you be so kind to repeat it here or give a link? Regards, Hans. http://physics-quest.org |
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wrote in message ... On Jul 26, 7:34 pm, "Pmb" wrote: Hans. I noticed that you didn't answer the question that I asked you. May I be so bold as to ask why? Pete Hi, Pete. Which question was that? Would you be so kind to repeat it here or give a link? ----------------------------- I asked you where I could get a copy of your book. I'd love to read it. Pete |
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Hi Pete,
I regard you as one of the best experts on tidals tensors, you know, R_abcd, you've clued me in sometimes. Allow me to set up a complicated scenario. I'll use incremental variations to the gedanken. To begin: let Earth be free with No Sun and we have a sat orbiting in a perfect circular orbit. Now plup in the Sun such that the *center* of the Earth is in orbital Free-fall, and any objects displaced from said *center* are subject to tidal effects - relatively to the center of the Earth, by the effect of the Sun. I presume the tidal effect creates an anomally in said sats orbit to be elliptical when the Sun is taken into account, as a tidal effect. Said ellipse possesses a measureable semi-major direction, and that axis differs 20" of arc from the "absolute" Newtonian position compared to the "apparent" position GR uses. What do you Pete, and the fella's think? Regards Ken S. Tucker On Jul 26, 10:34 am, "Pmb" wrote: wrote in message ... On Jul 26, 1:53 am, wrote: ..... Hans. I noticed that you didn't answer the question that I asked you. May I be so bold as to ask why? Pete |
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Ken S. Tucker wrote:
Hi Steve, Tom and all. I can suggest a means of resolution by experiment, but it is complicated so stay with me on the bends. Actually, it isn't complicated at all, and HAS ALREADY BEEN DONE. The key is to realize that science is the process of testing theories, not attempting to "measure" some nebulous "speed of gravity" that depends in detail on one's model. The actual observations for EVERY ONE of the experiments TvF cites are in accord with the predictions of GR (there is also agreement with other models and theories, but that is not at issue here). The proper way to do science and compare theory to experiment is to select a theory and use it to compute the same quantities that are observed, and then compare the theoretical computations ("predictions") to the actual measurements. Instead, TvF insists on taking the observations, computing some model-dependent theoretical quantity ("speed of gravity") from them, and then comparing the result to theories. THAT IS NOT SCIENCE. The reason his method is invalid is that it is KNOWN to lead to erroneous conclusions (there are additional difficulties related to error analysis). So when he says "binary pulsars prove that when the source mass accelerates (as in Steve's example), the target body responds almost instantly", you should recognize: a) the observations do not MEASURE such a "response", they only observe signals from the distant pulsars, b) those signals are in agreement with the predictions of GR for such a system, and c) the source NEVER accelerates "as in Steve's example", the two objects merely orbit each other. In GR, the "response" is delayed by a time L/c, but TvF simply does not understand that in GR the acceleration does not point at the retarded position of the source, it points at the EXTRAPOLATED retarded position of the source mass (i.e. extrapolated from its retarded position). For every physical situation he considers, this extrapolated position is indistinguishable from the instantaneous position. When Steve presented a physical situation for which they are distinguishable, TvF dismissed it as "irrelevant". The issue of this thread is TvF's claims that he is using GR, when in fact his claims are at odds with the underlying structure of GR [#], and he displays in every post a rather complete ignorance of GR. And, of course, he has never done the computation in GR (or in an appropriate approximation to GR). [#] In GR, nothing that carries energy, momentum, or information can travel with local speed c relative to any locally-inertial frame. TvF's "speed of gravity" would violate this, IF IT WERE GR. He is wrong, because he is not actually applying GR. That is Steve's point, and mine. Tom van Flandern wrote: The force propagation speed (the "speed of gravity") is much faster than the speed c at which the physical field can change in response to changes in the force. Hmmm. It's not clear how "force" can "propagate" independent of the "physical field" in a field theory such as GR. But no matter, let's stick to the subject: If what you say is true, then it cannot be possible that all these statements are true: A) the "field interpretation" is indeed GR. B) the "gravitational force" in the "field interpretation" carries energy and momentum (i.e. it can transfer them from one object to another). C) Low's paper has no error, and neither does Carlip's and the zillions of other papers and textbooks. Indeed, it is rather clear that your statement is false, because you make an unacknowledged and implicit assumption that is false: that "gravitational force" is central (i.e. points directly at the source). In the appropriate approximation to GR in which there is a gravitational force, this is not true. So when we say "force is the gradient of potential", the geometric interpretation of GR simply assumes that the gravitational potential field, as described by the Einstein field equations, governs; and that a gradient in that field causes a force. YOU might assume that because you clearly do not understand the geometry of GR, but no GR expert would do so. The "geometric interpretation of GR" makes no such assumptions, because it has no "gravitational potential" or "gravitational force". In the situations you consider, objects follow geodesic paths through spacetime, and there is no "force" on them at all (that's what "geodesic path" means). Please don't confuse this with a planet's path through space (as you have done before). Yes, the path of a planet in 3-space is not a geodesic in space. But it _IS_ a geodesic in spaceTIME (assuming the planet is small enough that its effect on the geometry can be neglected). For instance, the earth follows a helix through spacetime centered on the sun, with a radius ~8 light minutes and a period of one light year; this deviates from a straight line by a few parts per million, consistent with the curvature induced by the sun's gravitation (I'm neglecting small stuff). The axis of this helix is parallel to the time axis of local Minkowski coordinates in which the sun is at rest. the geometric interpretation of GR is no longer viable because it violates physical principles. Nonsense. It obeys DIFFERENT "physical principles" than you want to accept. That's all. This is YOUR problem, not GR's or any "geometric interpretation's". So we are forced to adopt the other physical interpretation, that gravitational force induces a gradient into the gravitational potential field. We are not "forced" to do that at all -- on a geodesic path there is no "force" at all (it's your PUN, not mine). All you ever do is show that the basics of GR are incompatible with your closely-held beliefs about "physical principles", and that you don't really understand GR. Both are YOUR problem. [Roberts]: The problem is: your model is inconsistent with "gravitational force" propagating at speed c; but the appropriate approximation to GR is not inconsistent with that, nor is GR itself. That statement is flatly wrong. You really need to get yourself straightened out about that point. Ask Steve Carlip or anyone who knows relativistic dynamics. No model that has gravitational forces propagating at speed c can reproduce the orbital motions of the planets. The basic problem is that we use different words and phrases, and have different sets of implicit assumptions. Note that Steve Carlip discusses ACCELERATION of the target object, not "force", and he discusses a DELAY in the effects of stopping the source, not a "propagation speed" of anything from source to target. His word choice is much better than yours, as it is significantly more precise (but is still subject to the implicit assumptions listed below). A major part of his and my disagreement with your claims are several implicit assumptions (Steve's computation has no need for these, but the discussion uses all of them): A) fields are weak and there is an obvious "background" Minkowski coordinate system to use. B) quantities such as time, position, velocity, acceleration, and direction are referenced to the coordinates of (A). C) the acceleration of a target body is in the same direction as any "gravitational force" on that body, at every instant. D) if any gravitational influence propagates from source to target, then the speed of propagation is the ratio of the distance between them to the delay between changes in the source's motion or position and the effect on the target's motion, with all quantities measured in the coordinates of (A). [Note that the acceleration of (C) is nonzero, even though in GR there is no "gravitational force" and the 4-acceleration of the target body is zero. See (B).] Steve's computation clearly shows that with these assumptions, in GR the speed of (D) is c, not c. There is no interpretation in his computation, and the only interpretations required to relate its result to this discussion are listed above. Now consider the physical situation you consider: two isolated objects in mutual orbit. While I know of no exact computation, I believe there are computations in an approximation to GR that have the same basic features of Steve's computation: the acceleration of one object points toward the EXTRAPOLATED retarded position of the other object. This is a counterexample to your claim "No model that has gravitational forces propagating at speed c can reproduce the orbital motions of the planets." And this also explains how it is that you can be deluded into thinking the "speed of gravity" is c -- for the physical situations you consider, the EXTRAPOLATED retarded position is experimentally indistinguishable from its instantaneous position (using suitable coordinates, as above). Tom Roberts |
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