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Inverse Square Law and Infinity



 
 
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Old March 6th 08 posted to sci.physics,sci.physics.particle,sci.physics.relativity
Y.Porat
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Default Inverse Square Law and Infinity

On Mar 5, 9:45*pm, "hanson" wrote:
"Selwyn-Lloyd McPherson" wrote in message

...
If you take the inverse square law (a = 1/b^2) to 0 (b -- 0)
then a seems to go to infinity.

Sam Wormley said:
b can't really go to zero.... that's a physical limitation for most
systems.

"Insipid Halogen Name" said:
b is the distance between _centers_ (of mass, of charge) of two different
bodies so it is just about impossible to get them extremely close.

hanson wrote:

in Newton's F = G*m*M/r^2, of course, "r" can't go to zero, because
any "m" requires a positive "r"... There were very recently a bunch
of threads that dealt with the *r-min conditions, including whether "G"
is really constant, since only the product of "G*m" can be measured
to great exactness, but NOT so the value of "G" alone. *GR tried to
improve the situation, but as long as it uses Newton's "G" in all of its
solutions, this Einstein crock n'crap is not any better than Newton's.

It is equally funny to muse over F = G*m*M/r^2 with "r" going to infinity
where according to the equation F only becomes zero at infinity...
However currently accepted speculation says that this is wrong
because F is already zero when "r" reaches the distance to the light
wall, "R", the radius the observable universe, from beyond which we
cannot "feel" any force any more, F(R) = 0 .... ahahaha...

One can make the same spiel with the EM charge 1/r^2 law... and
show that the EM reach is not infinite, because it turns out that at a
separation distance of the cosmic "R" between 2 elementary electrical
charges they will neither attract nor repel each other any more, since
(amongst other reasons) the time required to "feel" each other will
exceed the time "t" that the observable universe allegedly has existed.
And to make matter seven more hilarious throw in the HUP, ~E=h*t,
and estimate the remaining energy & fore between 2 charges under
these theoretically but not practically observable conditions... ahahaha....

Enjoy all these mental bullsherations, dudes, but always remember
that only $4 with or without such knowledge will buy you a cup of coffee....
Thanks for the laughs.... ahahaha... ahahahanson


-----------
right !!

amthematiciance that call themselves physicists
donot know that
each physical mathematicalformula
HAS ITS LIMITS OF VALIDATION !!
iow
there is not all over overlap between the
mathematical formula and physical reality
2
i can explain what you saied about
a force becoming zero even before infinit distance:

just think about all attraction agents
*as not moving in straight lines*
*but moving **naturally** in a curved line!!!
pleae not that 'naturally' - no one is forcing it
to do it- it is just as it was 'born' to behave

once the force line is curved
it cant reach to infinity !!

iow it ends its action even much before infinity
because the curved line causes it to go back
(as sort of a fountain) muchj more before infinity

now just think about the
CIRCLON .... (:-)
as a force agent !!
ATB
Y.Porat
-----------------------
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