![]() |
| If this is your first visit, be sure to check out the FAQ by clicking the link above. You may have to register before you can post: click the register link above to proceed. To start viewing messages, select the forum that you want to visit from the selection below. |
|
|||||||
| Tags: bend, does, gravity, light, under |
|
|
Thread Tools | Display Modes |
|
#181
|
|||
|
|||
|
Darwin123 wrote:
[about Hafele and Keating's experiment] There is a less extreme position that the 1971 HK experiment was a test of general relativity. It was a test of GR only so far as SR is part of GR. This is not "less extreme", this is mainstream -- the H&K experiment can only be interpreted as a test of GR, because SR is inadequate to analyze it. The experimental conditions were set up so the difference in gravitational potential was entirely negligible. This is not true at all. For the eastbound trip the predicted gravitational effect was 80% of the kinematic effect, and for westbound it was 180% -- not "negligible" at all! This was an SR experiment. It verified SR and nothing else. No. But it did confirm GR. Tom Roberts |
| Ads |
|
#182
|
|||
|
|||
|
Pmb wrote:
"Pentcho Valev" wrote in message ... On Apr 1, 12:52 am, Tom Roberts wrote in sci.physics: Anon wrote: Because as you get closer to a massive body light is slowed down, this bends the rays of light towards the massive object. The same is true of other massive objects. That is what Einstein said. As I said before, Einstein said that in 1911, early on the then-unfinished journey to General Relativity. GR itself does not really have this property. Note: Einstein's first work on general relativity (e.g. the equivalence principle, gravitational time dilation. deflection of light, etc.) was in a paper published in 1907 called "On the Relativity Principle and the Conclusions Drawn from it," A. Einstein, Jahrbuch der Radioaktivitat und Elektronik 4 (1907): 411-462. And contrary to Roberts claim, GR *does( have this property. Had you read my full statement, you would know that I said GR has this property IN THE APPROPRIATE APPROXIMATION, SPEAKING LOOSELY: i.e. for a suitable meaning of "speed" -- not a LOCAL speed but a NON-LOCAL speed or a COORDINATE speed. And as I said, 'without approximation, or to speak more accurately, one must discuss geodesic deviation, not "light slowed down".' The primary fault is Valev's, as he is the one who omitted my explanatory text. But my original post is in this thread. It is a very simple thing to derive. E.g. http://www.geocities.com/physics_wor..._in_gfield.htm That link says explicitly that the computation is the COORDINATE speed of light. That is, the computed value is a ratio of coordinate intervals, NOT what one would measure over a local distance using standard clocks and rulers (one always measures c when one does that). As I keep saying, and you both (Valev and PMB) keep ignoring: ONE MUST BE CAREFUL TO AVOID PUNS. There are multiple meanings of the word "speed" here and you are both oblivious to that fact. Doing physics requires precision in thought and word, and such unacknowledged puns destroy the discussion or argument. The normal meaning of "speed" is what one measures in the obvious way using standard clocks and rulers; with gravitation this must be over a local path (short enough so variations in gravitational potential can be ignored), so the two clocks can be synchronized. The coordinate speed of light can be essentially anything, and the speed of light measured over a non-local path can differ from c (e.g. Shapiro time delay). But if you call those simply "speed" you are sure to confuse your reader (and most likely yourself) -- that has CLEARLY happened in this thread. Tom Roberts |
|
#183
|
|||
|
|||
|
On Apr 2, 9:53*pm, Tom Roberts wrote:
Pmb wrote: "Pentcho Valev" wrote in message ... On Apr 1, 12:52 am, Tom Roberts wrote in sci.physics: Anon wrote: Because as you get closer to a massive body light is slowed down, this bends the rays of light towards the massive object. The same is true of other massive objects. That is what Einstein said. As I said before, Einstein said that in 1911, early on the then-unfinished journey to General Relativity. GR itself does not really have this property. Note: Einstein's first work on general relativity (e.g. the equivalence principle, gravitational time dilation. deflection of light, etc.) was in a paper published in 1907 called "On the Relativity Principle and the Conclusions Drawn from it," A. Einstein, Jahrbuch der Radioaktivitat und Elektronik 4 (1907): 411-462. And contrary to Roberts claim, GR *does( have this property. Had you read my full statement, you would know that I said GR has this property IN THE APPROPRIATE APPROXIMATION, SPEAKING LOOSELY: i.e. for a suitable meaning of "speed" -- not a LOCAL speed but a NON-LOCAL speed or a COORDINATE speed. And as I said, 'without approximation, or to speak more accurately, one must discuss geodesic deviation, not "light slowed down".' The primary fault is Valev's, as he is the one who omitted my explanatory text. But my original post is in this thread. It is a very simple thing to derive. E.g. http://www.geocities.com/physics_wor..._in_gfield.htm That link says explicitly that the computation is the COORDINATE speed of light. That is, the computed value is a ratio of coordinate intervals, NOT what one would measure over a local distance using standard clocks and rulers (one always measures c when one does that). As I keep saying, and you both (Valev and PMB) keep ignoring: ONE MUST BE CAREFUL TO AVOID PUNS. There are multiple meanings of the word "speed" here and you are both oblivious to that fact. Doing physics requires precision in thought and word, and such unacknowledged puns destroy the discussion or argument. The normal meaning of "speed" is what one measures in the obvious way using standard clocks and rulers; with gravitation this must be over a local path (short enough so variations in gravitational potential can be ignored), so the two clocks can be synchronized. The coordinate speed of light can be essentially anything, and the speed of light measured over a non-local path can differ from c (e.g. Shapiro time delay). But if you call those simply "speed" you are sure to confuse your reader (and most likely yourself) -- that has CLEARLY happened in this thread. Tom Roberts- Hide quoted text - - Show quoted text - Such brilliance. I hope Tom Roberts can write a book like as "An Idiot's Guide to General Relativity". It would help millions immensely. But Roberts seems to enjoy taking poke shots at crackpots. Note crackpots are born not to learn but to repeat the same mistakes. So as Roberts hair gets whiter as each year and decade passes by going into his old age, he would meet the same people and same argument again and again. I hope he can spend his talent writing that book. Or if Roberts is not a born writer. Can anyone of you write "An Idiot's Guide to General Relativity?" cu |
|
#184
|
|||
|
|||
|
On Apr 2, 4:07*pm, Cutix wrote:
On Apr 2, 9:53*pm, Tom Roberts wrote: Pmb wrote: "Pentcho Valev" wrote in message .... On Apr 1, 12:52 am, Tom Roberts wrote in sci.physics: Anon wrote: Because as you get closer to a massive body light is slowed down, this bends the rays of light towards the massive object. The same is true of other massive objects. That is what Einstein said. As I said before, Einstein said that in 1911, early on the then-unfinished journey to General Relativity. GR itself does not really have this property. Note: Einstein's first work on general relativity (e.g. the equivalence principle, gravitational time dilation. deflection of light, etc.) was in a paper published in 1907 called "On the Relativity Principle and the Conclusions Drawn from it," A. Einstein, Jahrbuch der Radioaktivitat und Elektronik 4 (1907): 411-462. And contrary to Roberts claim, GR *does( have this property. Had you read my full statement, you would know that I said GR has this property IN THE APPROPRIATE APPROXIMATION, SPEAKING LOOSELY: i.e. for a suitable meaning of "speed" -- not a LOCAL speed but a NON-LOCAL speed or a COORDINATE speed. And as I said, 'without approximation, or to speak more accurately, one must discuss geodesic deviation, not "light slowed down".' The primary fault is Valev's, as he is the one who omitted my explanatory text. But my original post is in this thread. It is a very simple thing to derive. E.g. http://www.geocities.com/physics_wor..._in_gfield.htm That link says explicitly that the computation is the COORDINATE speed of light. That is, the computed value is a ratio of coordinate intervals, NOT what one would measure over a local distance using standard clocks and rulers (one always measures c when one does that). As I keep saying, and you both (Valev and PMB) keep ignoring: ONE MUST BE CAREFUL TO AVOID PUNS. There are multiple meanings of the word "speed" here and you are both oblivious to that fact. Doing physics requires precision in thought and word, and such unacknowledged puns destroy the discussion or argument. The normal meaning of "speed" is what one measures in the obvious way using standard clocks and rulers; with gravitation this must be over a local path (short enough so variations in gravitational potential can be ignored), so the two clocks can be synchronized. The coordinate speed of light can be essentially anything, and the speed of light measured over a non-local path can differ from c (e.g. Shapiro time delay). But if you call those simply "speed" you are sure to confuse your reader (and most likely yourself) -- that has CLEARLY happened in this thread. Tom Roberts Such brilliance. I hope Tom Roberts can write a book like as "An Idiot's Guide to General Relativity". It would help millions immensely. But Roberts seems to enjoy taking poke shots at crackpots. Note crackpots are born not to learn but to repeat the same mistakes. So as Roberts hair gets whiter as each year and decade passes by going into his old age, he would meet the same people and same argument again and again. I hope he can spend his talent writing that book. Or if Roberts is not a born writer. Can anyone of you write "An Idiot's Guide to General Relativity?" Roberts, together with Jean-Marc Levy-Leblond, should first write a guide to special relativity: http://groups.google.ca/group/sci.ph...34dc146100e32c Tom Roberts, Feb 1 2006: "If it is ultimately discovered that the photon has a nonzero mass (i.e. light in vacuum does not travel at the invariant speed of the Lorentz transform), SR would be unaffected but both Maxwell's equations and QED would be refuted (or rather, their domains of applicability would be reduced)." http://o.castera.free.fr/pdf/chronogeometrie.pdf Jean-Marc Levy-Leblond: "D'autre part, nous savons aujourd'hui que l'invariance de la vitesse de la lumiere est une consequence de la nullite de la masse du photon. Mais, empiriquement, cette masse, aussi faible soit son actuelle borne superieure experimentale, ne peut et ne pourra jamais etre consideree avec certitude comme rigoureusement nulle. Il se pourrait meme que de futures mesures mettent en evidence une masse infime, mais non-nulle, du photon ; la lumiere alors n'irait plus a la "vitesse de la lumiere", ou, plus precisement, la vitesse de la lumiere, desormais variable, ne s'identifierait plus a la vitesse limite invariante. Les procedures operationnelles mises en jeu par le "second postulat" deviendraient caduques ipso facto. La theorie elle- meme en serait-elle invalidee ? Heureusement, il n'en est rien ; mais, pour s'en assurer, il convient de la refonder sur des bases plus solides, et d'ailleurs plus economiques. En verite, le "premier postulat" suffit, a la condition de l'exploiter a fond." http://o.castera.free.fr/pdf/onemorederivation.pdf Jean-Marc Levy-Leblond: "This is the point of view from wich I intend to criticize the overemphasized role of the speed of light in the foundations of the special relativity, and to propose an approach to these foundations that dispenses with the hypothesis of the invariance of c....We believe that special relativity at the present time stands as a universal theory discribing the structure of a common space-time arena in which all fundamental processes take place....The evidence of the nonzero mass of the photon would not, as such, shake in any way the validity of the special relativity. It would, however, nullify all its derivations which are based on the invariance of the photon velocity." Pentcho Valev |
|
#185
|
|||
|
|||
|
On Apr 2, 12:12 am, Tom Roberts wrote:
Darwin123 wrote: [about Hafele and Keating's experiment] There is a less extreme position that the 1971 HK experiment was a test of general relativity. It was a test of GR only so far as SR is part of GR. This is not "less extreme", this is mainstream -- the H&K experiment can only be interpreted as a test of GR, because SR is inadequate to analyze it. The experimental conditions were set up so the difference in gravitational potential was entirely negligible. This is not true at all. For the eastbound trip the predicted gravitational effect was 80% of the kinematic effect, and for westbound it was 180% -- not "negligible" at all! I am not sure where you got your numbers. Unfortunately, I read the articles a long time ago so I can't give my references either. However, Hafele had an calculation article where he broke up his calculated results into separate components. One article describes the experiment and compares it to calculation, one article decomposes the calculation in SR and GR components. There was no doubt that the GR component was within experimental uncertainty. The difference between SR calculations and experiment results was within experimental uncertainty. The HK experiment (east-west) was a confirmation of SR. I read accompanying articles by Hafele. He gave estimates of the "special relativity" part of the correction, and the "general relativity" part of the correction. The general relativity part was the theoretical correction subtracted from the correction that could be performed using special relativity alone. The contribution of this part was almost exactly the same for the clock going east, the clock going west, and the NBS clock. For the first experiment, where the airplanes were going either eatward or westward, the "general relativity" part of the correction was small. The GR component was nonzero but experimentally negligible. The experimental results did not depend on the equivalence principle. It was simple Lorentz time dilation. A later experiment by someone else did a similar experiment where the traveling clocks circled the earth in the North and South directions. In THAT experiment, the SR component was experimentally negligible while the GR component matched the experimental results within the uncertainty. You see that in THAT experiment, the radial acceleration of all three clocks was the same. The only difference between clocks was the gravitational potential, because the earth is elongated at the equator. Again, the article broke the results into an SR and a GR component. Therefore, the experimental results directly validated the equivalence principle. Lorentz time dilation was not directly involved. |
|
#186
|
|||
|
|||
|
On Mar 29, 3:26*pm, Darwin123 wrote:
* * Photons have zero REST MASS, not zero total mass. Since photons can never be found at rest, each photon has a nonzero total mass. wrong and assbackwards--read my post * * If you don't believe A. Einstein, read H. A. Lorentz. Electromagnetic waves have a nonzero inertial mass. Particles have mass associated with motion which can be explained by the force fields the particles drag along. The idea of light being bent is merely an application of the Law of Equivalence (Einstein's) to the concept of Elèctric fields ride on gravital fields; elèctric waves ride on the same. The waves don't holdan mass by definiion; they /do/ mass. If liht had mass--which it can't any more than $1 hav mass--then beams and likenesses of everything would ooze toward their attractors. Fotòns would continually split and breed at lower energies until everything met infrared death. electromagnetic mass (Lorentz). It sounds like you are knocking Lorentz's idea, not Einstein's. Light is not massless in the way you imply, and no modern physicists ever claimed it was so. *You are knocking a straw man. Speak to the PDG or shut up. * * *Since electromagnetic waves have inertial mass, it is pretty much a trivial extrapolation to infer they have gravitational mass. If you want, you can claim that A. Einstein made a trivial extrapolation from the work of A. Lorentz. Some may think it unfair to Einstein, but it would make more sense than your idiotic "massless photon" analogy. If this doesn't work, you can try calling H. A. Lorentz an idiot. Ye're all mòroi. -Aut |
| Thread Tools | |
| Display Modes | |
|
|
Similar Threads
|
||||
| Thread | Thread Starter | Forum | Replies | Last Post |
| Why does light bend under gravity? | chutsu@gmail.com | Physics - General Discussion | 257 | April 4th 08 02:17 PM |
| Where can we bend the rules of QM? | Gen Zhang | Current Physics Research (Moderated) | 3 | August 24th 07 03:00 PM |
| Q: Does Light Bend Space-Time? | Passer By | Physics - General Discussion | 19 | October 16th 06 09:34 AM |
| CONCRETE THAT CAN BEND | Dr. Jai Maharaj | Physics - General Discussion | 0 | July 4th 05 01:19 AM |
| Does light bend on the horizon? | perdidojoe | Physics - General Discussion | 2 | January 23rd 04 10:31 PM |