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#21
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On Feb 20, 3:31*pm, "Ken S. Tucker" wrote:
On Feb 20, 12:10 pm, "Sue..." wrote: On Feb 20, 2:03 pm, "Ken S. Tucker" wrote: Hi Edward and all. On Feb 14, 7:11 pm, Edward Green wrote: On Feb 14, 1:38 am, Eric Gisse wrote, in part: There are NO interior solutions to Kerr in general relativity to my knowledge. That raises a red flag - I don't believe it is proven they don't exist, but it's suggestive to me. Yes, to me too. I had intended to ask whether "interior solution" means interior to the event horizon or interior to a surface within which the vacuum is replaced with a mass density. It turns out, on some investigation, both! The vacuum solution inside the event horizon is said to be "unstable", whatever that means, or else "unphysical" (that part of a respectable theory which in lesser theories might be described as "wrong"). I also learned, as you say, that there is no known solution including mass density which can be smoothly joined to the outer Kerr solution (although some treatment of a spinning dust disk reduces to Kerr solution in a limiting case). The evidence is firmly ambiguous: if we could show no non-vacuum extension of the solution were possible inward, then I think we could safely say that the hope that Kerr describes the exterior field of a massive spinning body is doomed; however, the language is "not known" -- and there is the tantalizing datum of a single known solution is a single special case. I am tempted to claim that the exterior vacuum Kerr solution, while a valid solution of the field equations, cannot represent the external field of a spinning body. As I mentioned, a rotating massive object seems to transmit no intelligence of its sense of rotation to the GR source term. If we are in fact able to tell from purely gravitational observation which way a spheroid is spinning, then there must be some additional factor which breaks the symmetry. I agree, because the Guv=Tuv is symmetrical, furthermore I think AE made a mistake in Ch2 of this ref, http://www.alberteinstein.info/galle...lish_pp146-200... AE has S1 a as sphere and S2 as an ellipsoid, then he relies on Mach's *principle* to justify the differing shapes, (something about rotation) but it's unnecessary in GR. A page number would be helpful. Hmmm... These molecules are ~ellipsoidal~ http://www.chem.purdue.edu/gchelp/liquids/inddip.html but a cloud of zillions of them acting as an inertial background (Machian) would exert even force and so a *test mass would be spherical. The internal "stress-energy" tensor shapes differences work quite well, for example see, http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Piezoelectricity If S1 is composed of a Piezoelectrical crystal, with no interior voltage diffs, but S2 has interior voltage diffs to force the sphere into a ellpsoidal shape, as in the wiki ref, where the North and South Pole are pushed together, the reciprocal effect is to apply a voltage and vary the geometry, as a smoke detector squeaker does. As Edward points out,(and I agree),the fact of an ellpsoidal shape does NOT provide any direction of rotation into the g-field, and there is no need to presume rotation is the cause of the ellipsoid. That may be the case for you piezoelectric analog but but the mechanism Koruopolis describes --Koruopolishttp://arxiv.org/abs/physics/0107015 DOES have a directed orientation along the lines of force. Sue... Regards Ken S. Tucker [snip]- Hide quoted text - - Show quoted text - Our Mr. Green is surveying an object and finds it is an ellipsoid. Now how can Mr. Green find the direction of rotation of said ellipsoid? A ~Machian~ backgroud does not have a direction however a pair of molecules interacting as as induction partners has a direction wrt each other. For pairs of hydrogen: +- -+ Repelling, unstable -+ -+ Attracting, stable +- +- Attracting, stable I suppose you could say the directions are inward and outward. ... unlike the case of Newtonian mechanics, we have to be careful about the presuppositions of such a coordinate system, since in general relativity various reference frames are possible and allowed. How should we choose axes of a coordinate system, and how should we obtain a value on such an axis? http://www.bun.kyoto-u.ac.jp/~suchii/schwarzschild.html Sue... Regards Ken S. Tucker |
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Hi Sue,
This is a good thread and I wish to stay on topic. so let me put you on hold pending the replies of others, with all due respect. Ken S. Tucker On Feb 20, 1:07 pm, "Sue..." wrote: On Feb 20, 3:31 pm, "Ken S. Tucker" wrote: On Feb 20, 12:10 pm, "Sue..." wrote: On Feb 20, 2:03 pm, "Ken S. Tucker" wrote: Hi Edward and all. On Feb 14, 7:11 pm, Edward Green wrote: On Feb 14, 1:38 am, Eric Gisse wrote, in part: There are NO interior solutions to Kerr in general relativity to my knowledge. That raises a red flag - I don't believe it is proven they don't exist, but it's suggestive to me. Yes, to me too. I had intended to ask whether "interior solution" means interior to the event horizon or interior to a surface within which the vacuum is replaced with a mass density. It turns out, on some investigation, both! The vacuum solution inside the event horizon is said to be "unstable", whatever that means, or else "unphysical" (that part of a respectable theory which in lesser theories might be described as "wrong"). I also learned, as you say, that there is no known solution including mass density which can be smoothly joined to the outer Kerr solution (although some treatment of a spinning dust disk reduces to Kerr solution in a limiting case). The evidence is firmly ambiguous: if we could show no non-vacuum extension of the solution were possible inward, then I think we could safely say that the hope that Kerr describes the exterior field of a massive spinning body is doomed; however, the language is "not known" -- and there is the tantalizing datum of a single known solution is a single special case. I am tempted to claim that the exterior vacuum Kerr solution, while a valid solution of the field equations, cannot represent the external field of a spinning body. As I mentioned, a rotating massive object seems to transmit no intelligence of its sense of rotation to the GR source term. If we are in fact able to tell from purely gravitational observation which way a spheroid is spinning, then there must be some additional factor which breaks the symmetry. I agree, because the Guv=Tuv is symmetrical, furthermore I think AE made a mistake in Ch2 of this ref, http://www.alberteinstein.info/galle...lish_pp146-200... AE has S1 a as sphere and S2 as an ellipsoid, then he relies on Mach's *principle* to justify the differing shapes, (something about rotation) but it's unnecessary in GR. A page number would be helpful. Hmmm... These molecules are ~ellipsoidal~ http://www.chem.purdue.edu/gchelp/liquids/inddip.html but a cloud of zillions of them acting as an inertial background (Machian) would exert even force and so a test mass would be spherical. The internal "stress-energy" tensor shapes differences work quite well, for example see, http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Piezoelectricity If S1 is composed of a Piezoelectrical crystal, with no interior voltage diffs, but S2 has interior voltage diffs to force the sphere into a ellpsoidal shape, as in the wiki ref, where the North and South Pole are pushed together, the reciprocal effect is to apply a voltage and vary the geometry, as a smoke detector squeaker does. As Edward points out,(and I agree),the fact of an ellpsoidal shape does NOT provide any direction of rotation into the g-field, and there is no need to presume rotation is the cause of the ellipsoid. That may be the case for you piezoelectric analog but but the mechanism Koruopolis describes --Koruopolishttp://arxiv.org/abs/physics/0107015 DOES have a directed orientation along the lines of force. Sue... Regards Ken S. Tucker [snip]- Hide quoted text - - Show quoted text - Our Mr. Green is surveying an object and finds it is an ellipsoid. Now how can Mr. Green find the direction of rotation of said ellipsoid? A ~Machian~ backgroud does not have a direction however a pair of molecules interacting as as induction partners has a direction wrt each other. For pairs of hydrogen: +- -+ Repelling, unstable -+ -+ Attracting, stable +- +- Attracting, stable I suppose you could say the directions are inward and outward. ... unlike the case of Newtonian mechanics, we have to be careful about the presuppositions of such a coordinate system, since in general relativity various reference frames are possible and allowed. How should we choose axes of a coordinate system, and how should we obtain a value on such an axis? http://www.bun.kyoto-u.ac.jp/~suchii/schwarzschild.html Sue... Regards Ken S. Tucker |
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#23
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On Feb 19, 10:04 pm, Koobee Wublee wrote:
On Feb 19, 10:47 pm, Eric Gisse wrote: On Feb 19, 9:15 pm, Koobee Wublee wrote: Kinetic energy is observer dependent, and so is the momentum. This is also true for the observed mass. Always the "observed" qualifier, eh? Do you not agree that the kinetic energy is observer dependent? It's so obvious that it doesn't need to be written. You append "observed" whether it should be there or not. The weasel words are one of the many annoying aspects of you. What weasel words? Do you not understand the meaning of the word 'observed'? It allows you to deliberately not discuss more subtle issues by shoveling everything into an "observed" qualifier. When asked to calculate the surface area of a sphere of constant radius at a specific slice of time, you weasel out of the simple calculation by whining about "observed" radius. I did give you a straight answer. You were the one who chose to weasel your way out ignoring my answer. shrug The answer is worthless whether or not it is correct because you can't actually /calculate/ the answer. You repeatedly fail to do the simple calculation. Thus, the energy-momentum tensor must be observer dependent as well. False logic leading to a wrong conclusion from someone who doesn't know any better. How can it be false logic if the kinetic energy is observer dependent? The stress-energy tensor isn't a function of kinetic energy. The stress-energy tensor for a lone particle isn't made out of the particle's 3-momentum OR its' kinetic energy. Then, you disagree with Professor Roberts. You two need to make up. shrug Since both he and I gave you two stress-energy tensors - neither of which are functions of kinetic energy, I fail to see what your whining about. 1) Its' a tensor, but we both know multilinear objects are beyond your grasp but not your reach so understanding is not expected of you. We know the tensor is merely a matrix. shrug Royal we - tensors aren't matrices. 2) The STRESS-ENERGY tensor is not a function of observer dependent quantities. Go look up a few. According to Professor Roberts, it consists of the kinetic energy and the momentum. shrug Nope. Since it is the energy-momentum tensor that equates with the Einstein tensor, the field equations allow an observer dependent quantity to shape the curvature of spacetime that is supposed to be observer independent or invariant. ...and when asked "what is a tensor", will you finally provide an answer that DOESN'T talk about matrices? Please give me a date when you personally will be in peace with this particular self-inconsistency. Please give us a date when you will sit your ass down and start learning the theories which you routinely criticize. I have already done so. When are you getting your BS degree? You have missed your promise date in several occasions so far, Mr. super- super-super-super senior. Nope - one occasion, and I had it prefaced with a qualifier. OTOH I fail to see why I should have to rationalize myself to you. Properly identified according to Hilbert's Lagrangian that satisfies as an density to the Einstein-Hilbert action, the energy-momentum tensor is described as follows. Please stop talking about Lagrangians and actions until you actually understand the concepts and mathematics relating to the concepts. Well, I have understood about Lagrangians and the calculus of variations. This means I have the right to use the Euler-Lagrange equation in a timely situation where the Lagrangian actually satisfies the mathematical constraints according to the Lagrangian method. Yet you fail to understand the basic concepts related to the method. You are encouraged to show your calculation that proves the Einstein- Hilbert action doesn't give the field equations. Then again, I have asked this before and you ignored the request. T_ij oc rho g_ij You pulled this straight out of your ass. Well, since Hilbert did pull out that Lagrangian out of his ass, and the above is merely a derivation from it, so technically you are correct, but so. shrug The Lagrangian was specifically chosen such that varying with respect to it gives the field equations. OTOH your definition is utterly meaningless. Plus it has the added stupidity of not only being written wrong, but is also deliberately non tensorial by the *******ized inclusion of the metric. The plot gets more intrigued. I thought you believe in the divine tensority of the metric. Prove it is a tensor, then. Since you claim to know all about the subject, it should be a simple exercise for you to explicitly write the expression for transforming your candidate stress-energy tensor to a different coordinate system and seeing if it satisfies the definition of a tensor. Put up or shut up. Where ** g_ij = Elements of the metric, the matrix The metric is not a matrix you ignorant ****. The metric is merely matrix. shrug Nope. ** rho = mass density So, where did you get that energy-momentum tensor? Pragmatic reason? The number of rank two tensors that you can build out of a particle's four-velocity is rather limited. Kinetic energy is not frame invariant and momentum is a function of its' four-velocity, so you don't have any choices. Foaming in the mouth without any answer but excuses, I see. shrug Just because you don't like the reason doesn't make it foaming or an "excuse". Technical reason? The definition of the stress-energy tensor for a single particle is T^uv = m U^u U^v. Test the definition for simple cases. It easily generalizes to a density. Hey, why stuff the field equations with definitions after Hilbert derived them? Do you do the same whine when presented with F = ma? You can derive F = ma from the Lagrangian method that has an arbitrary part that's called "force", and quantity called force is rather arbitrary. Or do you not see why I make the argument? Try U^i = (c,0,0,0) - the particle is at rest. So the only nonzero component of the tensor is T^00 = mc^2. Remember SR? And, the joke continues. shrug Not my fault you can't follow something incredibly simple or point out where the supposed error is. The verdict depends on how you pull out that energy-momentum tensor from. shrug Why do you care? It isn't as if you can use this knowledge, or even repeat what you are told without butchering it. You are correct. I do not care about bullsh*t. shrug Yet you have spent several years whining about it. Find retirement lonely? This still does not make much sense. It still has nothing to do with the field equations that Hilbert derived before 1916. YAWN. Yes, it is getting late. This is explained in every relativity textbook that has the Lagrangian derivation of the field equations - there is a specific component that is simply labeled the stress-energy tensor. It sounds like you need to fabricate toilet papers with all these books that are so wrong. shrug So where did you learn GR? It is less contradictory if you allow an invariant quantity to decide how spacetime should be curved. shrug Covariant, dumb****. COVARIANT. There is no more excuse. It is less contradictory if you allow an invariant quantity to decide how spacetime should be curved. In a way, it does. The Einstein-Hilbert action is int R*sqrt(-|g|) d^4x - the entire quantity is invariant and is built out of invariant quantities. |
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#24
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On Feb 19, 10:06 pm, Eric Gisse wrote:
On Feb 19, 8:53 am, Edward Green wrote: ... I wouldn't say a flywheel is unstable, though it may run down, but I would if the flywheel were liable to explode! OTOH, the author of the wikipedia article goes beyond "unstable" to "unphysical" ... that sounds like the case where one solution decays at infinity, and the other blows up -- something that is physically unreasonable. Of course I don't know what he had in mind. ...now the question is: Does anyone really care what Wikipedia says? I tend not to listen to Wikipedia anymore since the explanations in Wikipedia tend to be not as good as they could be. I merely state my source, for what it's worth. Of course it needs corroboration. (although some treatment of a spinning dust disk reduces toKerr solution in a limiting case). It isn't a GR solution though - its a solution to linearized Einstein- Cartan theory. Unless you found something specific to GR, which I'd encourage you to share. My sole reference (Wikipedia) mentions the the "Neugebauer/Meinel disk". The Kerr solution isn't a disk though. From my searching, it seems that the two are unrelated. Can you find a non-Wiki reference? http://xrl.us/bgic4 (Link to books.google.com) if you trust this link shortening service, or else google "neugebauer meinel disk": There were lots of references, this was the second. (The web makes any dweeb look learned). I'm not sure what you mean by "the solution is not a disk". Of course the solution isn't a disk -- but it is axial, and has some characteristic surfaces which resemble oblate spheroids. I would expect solutions related to a disk to have such surfaces, and the author did say this was a limiting case (of the Neugebaurer/Meinel disk). I think Einstein-Cartan theory is very cute in that it not only sidesteps a lot of the singularity and existence theorems that depend on the strong energy condition [T_uv U^u U^v 0 iirc] because spin counteracts positive stress-energy. You mean that intrinsic angular momentum shows up as "negative mass"? Does this mean if we had a mass with sufficient intrinsic angular momentum at the Earth's surface it would float away like a balloon? No. I specifically do not mean negative mass. The best phrasing I can think of at the moment is negative energy density. I did go on to think "negative energy" was probably better ... but why? Do you want to emphasize this is not the rest mass of anything? If we actually had some stuff with this intensive property, I'm not sure we could tell the difference. Plus it has the same overall structure as classical GR since you can cast the field equations in a form that has everything packed into an effective stress-energy tensor. With the result surmised above, that it's equivalent to allowing "negative energy"? How curious that would be. Yup. That's another reason why I think EC-GR is cute - it's the second way I know of, other than vacuum energy which is a quantum field theory thing, to circumvent positive energy conditions. Well, "mass" or "energy" aside, this naively suggests anti-gravity. I'm still not sure I see the relevance of a theory which takes "a Wessenhoff fluid" as itssource(unless I misunderstood your remarks). Ordinary rotating massive objects do not resemble Wessenhoff fluids -- they have angular momentum solely as a result of the global configuration of many bits of perfectly ordinary matter moving in a particular configuration. A Weyssenhoff fluid is a perfect fluid that is _rotating_. It is simply onesourceamong many that can be put into the field equations, it's just the most relevant one that I know about. The reason I care is that when the Weyseenhoff fluid is asourcein the linearized equations, the metric you get is the weak field Kerr solution. To me that is tantalizing. Indeed. All the most interesting areas seem to have clues that are tantalizing. Once again - there is no claim about intrinsic angular momentum being made here. These are bulk properties. Hmm... on Feb. 13 you wrote: "Wessenhoff fluid ... is a fluid with intrinsic angular momentum" Perhaps you didn't mean to put it that way? I take "intrinsic angular momentum" to mean an intensive quantity which is integrated over a volume to find a total angular momentum -- similar to a mass density, or a momentum density. We mentioned that the concept is classically dubious, but perhaps can be rescued by some vague non-classical effects, in whom all things are possible :-), or more concretely by a material including distributed microscopic centers of angular momentum on an unresolved scale - distributed pointlike sources. I mentioned as a possible example a material with significant unpaired (qm) spins -- which occasioned a side discussion how sometimes, when we say "spin" or "spining" we don't mean to invoke qm; which wasn't essential here anyway, as an example of "distributed pointlike sources of angular momentum" could be molecules in some excited state, or even a collection of (classically) spinning pebbles! Provided we don't resolve the pebbles. The few web references I could find do not really clarify whether Wessenhoff fluid has "intrinsic angular momentum" in this sense. http://www.iop.org/EJ/abstract/0264-9381/11/9/017 mentions "self-consistent spinning fluid", which sounds like it may have nothing to do with intrinsic angular momentum, but also cites "the ad hoc Wessenhoff spin fluid"! A "spin fluid" sounds much more exotic than a "spinning fluid", and leaves us in doubt. http://arxiv.org/ftp/hep-th/papers/0309/0309108.pdf contains a reference to: Wessenhoff, J., Raabe, A., "Relativistic Dynamics of Spin-Fluids and Spin-Particles," Acta Pol., 9 (1947), 8-53 which means someone must visit a library. But I think the title suggests something more along the lines I had in mind, and that the author of the later abstract may have been misleading to describe this as a "spinning fluid". And besides, why would Wessenhoff get to attach his name to the stuff, if it were just an ordinary kind of fluid, gaining angular momentum solely by relative motion of its bulk parts? :-) I mention that AFAIK "bulk property", since you mention it, means precisely something that is (ideally) distributed in this intensive way -- in the smallest subdivided bit (as dielectric constant, mass density, and so forth). You may have intended something else, but for me the evidence points to a Wessenhoff fluid having "bulk angular momentum" in just this sense, which is the same thing as "intrinsic angular momentum" as I understand the term. ... In the Wikipedia article, I see a parameter "J" in the metric? If that's the angular momentum, it's built in at the outset. Where...? First sentence and third equation of section "Mathematical form". What article? Sorry... the one on the Kerr Metric! Well, perhaps you are saying we have "spin" in the quantum mechanical sense. Even then we really don't have "intrinsic angular momentum" in the continuum sense, but more like a distribution of rapidly rotating particles below our level of resolution: whether we have tiny rapidly spinning (but still classical) dust particles, or quantum particles possessing angular momenta through quantum spin, doesn't really matter -- as I've said (too many times by now), if we have a distribution of such sources, I can see the idea might apply. There is no intrinsic angular momentum here! Think bulk properties! Bulk properties! You had better clarify what you mean by "intrinsic angular momentum" and "bulk properties", since it is evidently not what I mean. I have some parting Big Picture thoughts on how I think this all may hold together and pan out, or else hold out and pan together, but I'll save them for now. ;-) |
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#25
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On Feb 20, 1:15 am, Koobee Wublee wrote:
On Feb 16, 12:45 pm, Tom Roberts wrote: Edward Green wrote: Suppose we had two masses in relative motion, so that at least one mass must be in motion in any coordinate system (at least in approximately locally Lorentz coordinates which encompass both masses). At least one of the masses therefore has kinetic energy. Must we include this kinetic energy in the stress energy tensor, or can we simply use the rest mass of each as the energy, so long as we treat the masses discretely? The energy-momentum tensor automatically includes the motion of an object. One must include both its kinetic energy and its momentum, in addition to its mass. Kinetic energy is observer dependent, and so is the momentum. This is also true for the observed mass. Thus, the energy-momentum tensor must be observer dependent as well. Since it is the energy-momentum tensor that equates with the Einstein tensor, the field equations allow an observer dependent quantity to shape the curvature of spacetime that is supposed to be observer independent or invariant. Please give me a date when you personally will be in peace with this particular self-inconsistency. Even I can answer that like an establishment pro! The _components_ of the tensor may be observer dependent, but the abstract tensor itself is independent of any coordinate system. That's just how tensors are. Are you saying the whole machinery was put together wrong? ... Since both pressure and kinetic energy stem from the same root: that the particles are in relative motion, are we over-counting if we include both? Not if you do it correctly. It is less contradictory if you allow an invariant quantity to decide how spacetime should be curved. shrug I'm still unsatisfied with this one. It doesn't seem to me to be "contradictory" as much as "insuifficiently specified". A relativistic ideal gas has, even in its rest frame, a pressure and a an energy density, the latter including an increment to the rest energy. Both of these terms happen to involve the motion of the molecules, but they are observationally distinct, and don't require us to know anything about any damn molecules. In treating such a gas in field equations which include energy and pressure, if we can't simply plug both the observable values in, but invoke extra accounting principles -- that's cheating. Either we can blindly plug in both terms, in or there is something imperfect about the formulation. |
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#26
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On Feb 20, 7:17 pm, Edward Green wrote:
On Feb 20, 1:15 am, Koobee Wublee wrote: Kinetic energy is observer dependent, and so is the momentum. This is also true for the observed mass. Thus, the energy-momentum tensor must be observer dependent as well. Since it is the energy-momentum tensor that equates with the Einstein tensor, the field equations allow an observer dependent quantity to shape the curvature of spacetime that is supposed to be observer independent or invariant. Please give me a date when you personally will be in peace with this particular self-inconsistency. Even I can answer that like an establishment pro! The _components_ of the tensor may be observer dependent, but the abstract tensor itself is independent of any coordinate system. Can you prove that mathematically? Proof by faith does not count. That's just how tensors are. Well, in that case, the metric cannot be a tensor. shrug Are you saying the whole machinery was put together wrong? Yes. It is less contradictory if you allow an invariant quantity to decide how spacetime should be curved. shrug I'm still unsatisfied with this one. It doesn't seem to me to be "contradictory" as much as "insuifficiently specified". A relativistic ideal gas has, even in its rest frame, a pressure and a an energy density, the latter including an increment to the rest energy. Both of these terms happen to involve the motion of the molecules, but they are observationally distinct, and don't require us to know anything about any damn molecules. In treating such a gas in field equations which include energy and pressure, if we can't simply plug both the observable values in, but invoke extra accounting principles -- that's cheating. You need to think about this scenario more carefully. The pressure as you describe still is relative. shrug. Either we can blindly plug in both terms, in or there is something imperfect about the formulation.- Hide quoted text - Just a misunderstanding on your part. shrug |
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#27
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On Feb 20, 11:50 am, JanPB wrote:
On Feb 19, 10:15 pm, Koobee Wublee wrote: Kinetic energy is observer dependent, and so is the momentum. This is also true for the observed mass. Thus, the energy-momentum tensor must be observer dependent as well. No - the correct statement would be "thus, the energy-momentum tensor _components_ must be observer dependent as well". Given a matrix with its elements being observer dependent, the matrix must be observer dependent as well. I challenge you to prove your point mathematically. shrug (The distinction is analogous to the difference between "vector" and "vector components".) If the vector components are observer dependent, the vector itself must be observer dependent. Again, I challenge you to prove otherwise. shrug |
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On Feb 20, 6:29 am, Tom Roberts wrote:
Koobee Wublee wrote: Kinetic energy is observer dependent, and so is the momentum. This is also true for the observed mass. Thus, the energy-momentum tensor must be observer dependent as well. (sigh) You just do not understand tensors, and the distinction between tensors and their components. Kinetic energy, momentum, etc. are related to COMPONENTS of the energy-momentum tensor, and THEY are observer (coordinate) dependent. The tensor itself is not coordinate dependent -- that's why we use tensors. shrug sigh You are still practicing matheMagic. After creating a matrix where all of its elements are observer dependent, the matrix cannot become a tensor just by waving your matheMagic wand over it a few times. shrug This still does not make much sense. It still has nothing to do with the field equations that Hilbert derived before 1916. Perhaps if you had READ WHAT I WROTE you would not be so confused. I said nothing at all about the field equation, I was talking about the energy-momentum tensor. shrug So, what is the significance of your energy-momentum tensor if you do not allow it to be related to the Einstein tensor? [I only occasionally respond to Koobee, because it is useless to do so. Correction, it is embarrassing to do so for you since you have no challenges to my postings. shrug I do it only to prevent others from being fooled by his idiocies, and thinking that no response implies he is correct. He isn't.] You do it just to keep you satisfied with the religion of SR and GR. It is faith that you responded. shrug |
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#29
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On Feb 20, 5:01 pm, Eric Gisse wrote:
On Feb 19, 10:04 pm, Koobee Wublee wrote: Do you not agree that the kinetic energy is observer dependent? It's so obvious that it doesn't need to be written. You append "observed" whether it should be there or not. It is so obvious that you do not know what you are talking about. So, the rest of crap is snipped unread. |
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#30
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On Feb 20, 10:48 pm, Koobee Wublee wrote:
On Feb 20, 5:01 pm, Eric Gisse wrote: On Feb 19, 10:04 pm, Koobee Wublee wrote: Do you not agree that the kinetic energy is observer dependent? It's so obvious that it doesn't need to be written. You append "observed" whether it should be there or not. It is so obvious that you do not know what you are talking about. So, the rest of crap is snipped unread. How would you survey an ellipsoid? Ken |
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