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| Tags: contraction, measurement |
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#31
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"xxein" wrote in message ... On Feb 8, 4:42 am, "harry" wrote: "Peri of Pera" wrote in ... The Measurement of Contraction The theory of relativity is presented as one that cannot be understood by most people. This aura of complexity and difficulty is maintained by using ambiguity and vagueness in describing and defining the theory and defending it with even more ambiguity and vagueness against logic. But what is it really? Stripped of all esoteric language it simply means that physical objects (we may call them frames) that are capable of motion (cars, trains, planes, the earth, planets, stars) will shrink along the axis parallel to the motion and have their clocks slow down. The effects are in proportion to the velocity of the object and are called length contraction and time dilation. They can be calculated using the transformation formulas that are the substance of the Lorentz contraction hypothesis. Note: the transformation formulas do much more than that: they also account for time dilation and define relativity of simultaneity. : xxein: Hi, Harry. Standard explanation, but what about the unobserved physic where a subjectively measured relativeness doesn't matter? What is the explanation/description for that? See below, one possible explanation is that by Lorentz. But as the tools of measurement (rulers, clocks) are also adjusted relative to the speed, any change in metres and clock rates will not be noticed by anyone measuring length or time in his environment (the local frame). Regardless of the velocity of the local frame, things measured within the local frame by local frame occupants always have the same size and the local frame time always flows at the same rate. That is roughly the way Lorentz formulated the theory, and also close to Einstein's earliest formulation. Presented like that, it's indeed rather easy to understand. : ... as a relative method of measurement. Indeed, but still more than that: the measurable effects hint at possible interpretations - which themselves are beyond our reach of verification. However, the supporters of the relativity theories (both SR and LET) have introduced the concepts of observed frame and observer frame. "Observer frame" or "Local frame", what does it matter?! As long as one knows what is meant. It becomes less good when next "observer frame" is replaced by "observer": due to such jargon, all too many people fall in the trap of confusing inertial coordinate system procedures with quantum-mechanical "observer" effects. : C'mon Harry. Qm "observers' just localize it more. It's all the same frame vs. frame. All qm does is focus more intensely and lose gravity as a more macro part of the physic. Hmm... no. In QM observations imply physical interferences with the observed. Not so in SRT which instead uses coordinate systems that are assumed NOT to interfere. In that sense, SRT is "classical". [...] How will the movement of the two observers relative to the rod disclose the contracted length of the rod and not a distorted view of it? How are optical, communicative and angular aspects included in the measurement? What single fixed co-ordinate system is common to both observers or is it only relative to observer S or observer S'? ??? "observer S" *is* a co-ordinate system. : So is the observer S'. They are different. What defines the physic for this difference (and not just their relative difference)? I think you know my interpretation. ;-) But no known measurement can directly prove interpretations, and the OP apparently isn't interested in such philosophical discussions. BTW, for discussions about such foundational issues you are welcome to give input in sci.physics.foundations. :-) How will the experimenter establish that the times t of the two observers are simultaneous given that SR imposes a whole set of ifs and buts on simultaneity? It is *defined* as simultaneous. If the PoR is correct then more cannot be done, if that is what you mean. : Poo. I define the PoR as a subjective collection of observation (made into a physical theory) of measureable relationships with no underlying physical atributes. Here I say boo: measurable relationships certainly depend on undelying physical attributes! : There is no common thread that unites the micro to the macro (try gravity) despite the current tries. But I did mention to you, some time ago, that I was doing it. Did you succeed? How will any difference in the speed the observed object, S and S' be taken into account? ??? S and S' *are* the co-ordinate systems. : Yeaaaay. So what unites them in the underlying physic? Newton (as well as Einstein) would probably say that they both have zero rotational velocity relative to Space, while Mach would say that they have zero rotational velocity relative to the stars! It all can be done on paper making assumptions but not as a real test. The more ardent supporters of the contraction hypothesis assert that proof is not required. Their argument is that to 'make predictions' is sufficient or they will do the calculations manually and if these are rejected or ignored by anyone, they accuse him of being incapable of the maths and he should study the subject to understand the theory. With understanding they mean accepting it without reservation. Certainly not. :-)) Instead, when taking into account every imagined possibility, no other reasonable option remains. : The "TR hmm" is in order here. You will say that cavemen cannot make computers. WHY NOT??? Agree. :-) Immediately after sending I realised that the phrasing was a bit too dogmatic, and even I myself have looked into the possibility of a variant. Retake: When taking into account every imagined possibility that we know of, length contraction seems to be the only reasonable option (at least in the direction of motion). For the detailed "why", I can send you a copy of a conference paper that relates to this topic if you like. It is the approach of all monotheistic religions which ostracise all non- believers, excommunicate them, vilify them, and ultimately stone or burn them. In this NG it is automatically practised against any member who dares to reject SR or even question it. No problem with questioning it - that's science! However, be prepared to receive answers. :-) : You seem to believe that you have all the answers already and that no more are needed or to be considered. Did I get that right? No, certainly not! There are too many unsolved questions. However, on many of his questions very solid answers can be given. Cheers, Harald |
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#32
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"xxein" wrote in message ... On Feb 8, 11:43 pm, "jeckyl" wrote: "xxein" wrote in message [...] Co-ordinate systems and their usefulness is not the issue here. The issue is the physical structure they attempt to describe within their overall functional domain. The mapping we presently use has it's basis in static condition. We modified it to include, not only movement, but gradient movement that is defined by non-linear fields like gravity. What we did was to simply put a field overlay onto a pre-existing static system. We did NOT put a dynamic into the co- ordinate system itself. The universe is fluid, not static. Its co-ordinates are fluid. Point "A" is not here anymore. It is now over there. What we presently do is overlay pertinent fields onto a static map. One for each bit of gravitational matter. We say, then, that particle "Z" has moved from point "A" to point "B". It would seem that either will map the whole system (universe), but the conceptual difference allows for a different understanding of what inertial movement IS. You might think that there is no problem there. But there is. The gedanken here is that there is a lone large body and a small (test) pebble located parsecs away. Both temporarily static (a gedanken, after all). The pebble will "gravitate" toward the mass (don't even quibble about the mass also moving toward the pebble --- granted). As the pebble gets closer, has its velocity changed? How about wrt the speed of light? You might argue that there is no practical or significant difference that is very meaningful. Then, I would say that you don't really know how the underlying physic unites. The pebble either has an increasing inertial velocity in the presently used co-ordinate system or its inertial velocity remains unchanged in a fluid co-ordinate system. In one, its speed varies wrt c. In the other its speed remains constant wrt c. Exit gedanken. We can test this rather easily. We can do this with a modified Pound- Rebka, Pound-Snider. Evacuate a vertical tube and send a radioactive sample past a counter-clock with photo-electric detectors to control the on-off for the measuring cycle. Set up trapped adjustable springs to provide velocity for up and down velocities. Use another clock merely to adjust the springs and verify the speed of the material as it passes the photo-electric detectors both up and down. In this way, you can measure the amount of emitted particles (Geiger) for a fixed distance of transit and verify that the transit time remained the same. My predictive result is a ratio that depends on the selected velocity. For a velocity of 1k m/s, each detection would increase by 1.3E-10:1 in the downward direction and decrease by 1.19E-10:1 for the upward direction compared to a "parked" detection (1:1). This means that a rising clock has a slower timerate than a falling clock at the same place and time. Falling Space theories. I thought that they are incompible with Gravity probe A. However, I later saw the counter claim that the results are compatible with both stationary and falling space hypotheses (I haven't seen the calculation though). If the compatibility is that great, then maybe we'll never know! Take care. Harald |
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#33
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"Bryan Olson" wrote in message news
| Peri of Pera wrote:| "jeckyl" wrote: | [...] | .. That is what Einstein was talking about. That contraction .. the shorter | measurement of length .. is real. The object *really does* take up less | physical space at a given time in the observer's frame of reference .. and | that is what we are talking about when we talk about measured length. | | Jecko, | you have no arguments only assertions: Yes it does, No it doesn't - ad | nauseam. | | Well, no... you are missing it. Jeckyl is offering *explanations*. | One could assert they are arguments or argue they are assertions, but | either of those misses the real... uh... explanation. Like you, Jeckyl is a ****headed bigot. (That's not an insult, that's an explanation.) |
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#34
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"wugi" wrote in message ... "jeckyl" : [...] You missed relativity or simultaneity .. so many people do, yet it is probably the most important effect Agreed. A result of an "isotropy of = equality of light clocks" axiom (*), You could just as well call that ANisotropy... the essence is that isotropy is set by definition, and only for the chosen reference frame. See for example Einstein's 1905 paper on electrodynamics, paragraph 1. Thus it's mistake (although a common one) to claim that isotropy is a "result". You get out what you put in. ;-) easily taken for granted in a rest frame, but a real hypothesis when realising that there is no such thing as an all round rest frame... Hmm... As illustrated in paragraph 3 of that same paper, all inertial frames that are moving relative to the "rest" frame S have that - as measured in S - light rays propagate at speeds other than c relative to them (also called "closing speed" c-v). [...] The Michelson-Morley experiment may with hindsight be re-interpreted as an attempt to prove light clocks not being true (isotropic) clocks ! ??? Harald |
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#35
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On Feb 10, 6:18*pm, xxein wrote:
xxein: *If you would study physics, rather than memorizing a text and a specific math, you might have a chance to find out. *Try inventing concepts instead of adopting from already existing ones. This is not necessarily a productive agenda, though it might be personally entertaining in a quixotic way. Most revolutionary ideas in fact come from an unanticipated synthesis of already existing ideas -- this has always been the case. Indeed, broad and comfortable familiarity with the current field of ideas and measurements *facilitates* this synthesis, and it is the broad grasp of these existing ideas that marks a notable genius at synthesis. This is what Einstein is known for, as well as Feynman, Witten, Newton, and Bardeen, for examples. Taking the approach that it is better to be original and wrong than incremental and right is, unfortunately, almost a guarantee that the outcome will be the former. This may upset your little apple cart, but it is also a reality check. PD |
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#36
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On Feb 11, 7:59*am, "harry"
wrote: "xxein" wrote in message ... On Feb 8, 11:43 pm, "jeckyl" wrote: "xxein" wrote in message [...] Co-ordinate systems and their usefulness is not the issue here. *The issue is the physical structure they attempt to describe within their overall functional domain. *The mapping we presently use has it's basis in static condition. *We modified it to include, not only movement, but gradient movement that is defined by non-linear fields like gravity. *What we did was to simply put a field overlay onto a pre-existing static system. *We did NOT put a dynamic into the co- ordinate system itself. The universe is fluid, not static. *Its co-ordinates are fluid. *Point "A" is not here anymore. *It is now over there. *What we presently do is overlay pertinent fields onto a static map. *One for each bit of gravitational matter. *We say, then, that particle "Z" has moved from point "A" to point "B". It would seem that either will map the whole system (universe), but the conceptual difference allows for a different understanding of what inertial movement IS. *You might think that there is no problem there. *But there is. The gedanken here is that there is a lone large body and a small (test) pebble located parsecs away. *Both temporarily static (a gedanken, after all). *The pebble will "gravitate" toward the mass (don't even quibble about the mass also moving toward the pebble --- granted). *As the pebble gets closer, has its velocity changed? *How about wrt the speed of light? You might argue that there is no practical or significant difference that is very meaningful. *Then, I would say that you don't really know how the underlying physic unites. The pebble either has an increasing inertial velocity in the presently used co-ordinate system or its inertial velocity remains unchanged in a fluid co-ordinate system. *In one, its speed varies wrt c. *In the other its speed remains constant wrt c. *Exit gedanken. We can test this rather easily. *We can do this with a modified Pound- Rebka, Pound-Snider. *Evacuate a vertical tube and send a radioactive sample past a counter-clock with photo-electric detectors to control the on-off for the measuring cycle. Set up trapped adjustable springs to provide velocity for up and down velocities. *Use another clock merely to adjust the springs and verify the speed of the material as it passes the photo-electric detectors both up and down. In this way, you can measure the amount of emitted particles (Geiger) for a fixed distance of transit and verify that the transit time remained the same. *My predictive result is a ratio that depends on the selected velocity. *For a velocity of 1k m/s, each detection would increase by 1.3E-10:1 in the downward direction and decrease by 1.19E-10:1 for the upward direction compared to a "parked" detection (1:1). This means that a rising clock has a slower timerate than a falling clock at the same place and time. Falling Space theories. I thought that they are incompible with Gravity probe A. However, I later saw the counter claim that the results are compatible with both stationary and falling space hypotheses (I haven't seen the calculation though). If the compatibility is that great, then maybe we'll never know! Take care. Harald- Hide quoted text - - Show quoted text - xxein: Hi Harry. You call them 'falling space theories". I suppose that is generally correct but I haven't seen one that worked. I call mine "the ugly duck" because that's how it came to me. It came as a longshot because I had already quit this (gravity with Lorentz) effort 3 or 4 times. I was resigned to failure. But out of the blue came an idea that couldn't work. It did and has worked for 19 years, despite what I throw at it. Although logical and organized in my head, I can't seem to put it to writing. I keep thinking that every word I write has to be defended against all illogical beliefs with an explanation to suit them. I usually only offer hints and look stupid to the crowd. You are welcome to ask and I know that you have some 'set' beliefs that I would be working against. . |
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#37
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"Androcles" :
There is no mystery to bull****. 'we establish by definition that the "time" required by light to travel from A to B equals the "time" it requires to travel from B to A' because I SAY SO. -- Rabbi Albert Einstein http://www.androcles01.pwp.blueyonde...rt/tAB=tBA.gif 4 = 12 according to the cretin Einstein. You don't understand " tA=tB (S) but t'At'B (S') " ? It occurs everywhere, also in non-relativistic cases, basic geometry for instance... Equivalence of "non-moving" and "moving" light clocks: http://home.scarlet.be/~pin12499/MyS...6%20axiom4.gif http://home.scarlet.be/~pin12499/MyS...axiom4%20b.gif While tA=tB seems "obvious" in the first and tAtB in the second, t'A=t'B here requires a "mental leap". Still, a simple transformation exchanges both pictures (the orthogonality of space and time-axes is fallacious)... there is no uniquely selectable rest system left. Actually, the time axis, as one's world line, is being experienced "directly". But NO space axis is ever "directly" experienced by any inertial system. To the point that it leaves a degree of freedom. So, "cretin" Einstein can define one to his liking if not yours. He chose, cleverly, one that befits ALL inertial systems in an egalitarian way, no system is selectable as a special one. Understanding this is understanding the fabric of spacetime (while remaining cautious about distinguishing models mixing up space and time, and the "real" world not doing so:-) guido http://home.scarlet.be/~pin12499/paratwin.htm |
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#38
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"wugi" wrote in message ... | "Androcles" : | | There is no mystery to bull****. | 'we establish by definition that the "time" required by | light to travel from A to B equals the "time" it requires | to travel from B to A' because I SAY SO. -- Rabbi Albert Einstein | http://www.androcles01.pwp.blueyonde...rt/tAB=tBA.gif | | 4 = 12 according to the cretin Einstein. | | You don't understand " tA=tB (S) but t'At'B (S') " ? No, I ****in' don't understand it or why you wrote it. Did I or Einstein say tA or did I or Einstein say tAB? Did I say t'At'B or did I say tABtBA? I drew a picture. Too bad you are too stupid to understand it, and no, I do not understand what you are ranting about. | It occurs everywhere, also in non-relativistic cases, basic geometry for | instance... | | Equivalence of "non-moving" and "moving" light clocks: | http://home.scarlet.be/~pin12499/MyS...6%20axiom4.gif | http://home.scarlet.be/~pin12499/MyS...axiom4%20b.gif | While tA=tB seems "obvious" in the first and tAtB in the second, | t'A=t'B here requires a "mental leap". Did Einstein say tA or did Einstein say tAB? Did Einstein say tB? No, he didn't ****in' mention it at all. It would take a mental leap for you to learn to ****in' read! | Still, a simple transformation exchanges both pictures (the orthogonality of | space and time-axes is fallacious)... there is no uniquely selectable rest | system left. Drool. | | Actually, the time axis, as one's world line, is being experienced | "directly". More drool. | But NO space axis is ever "directly" experienced by any inertial system. To | the point that it leaves a degree of freedom. So, "cretin" Einstein can | define one to his liking if not yours. He chose, cleverly, one that befits | ALL inertial systems in an egalitarian way, no system is selectable as a | special one. Yeah, well, NIST defines a second as http://physics.nist.gov/cuu/Units/second.html the duration of 9 192 631 770 periods of the radiation corresponding to the transition between the two hyperfine levels of the ground state of the cesium 133 atom, which has ****-all to do with the speed of light so the cretin Einstein is not in agreement with anyone except his stupid disciples. | Understanding this is understanding the fabric of spacetime (while remaining | cautious about distinguishing models mixing up space and time, and the | "real" world not doing so:-) When you can read you'll be able to use words like "egalitarian" or "tAB" and know what they mean, idiot. |
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#39
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On Feb 11, 7:46*am, "harry"
wrote: "xxein" wrote in message Saving web ink. xxein: "Here I say boo: measurable relationships certainly depend on underlying physical attributes!". To that I say 'define them' so that all may know and have a firm background of the universal physic. I will use this quote out of its intended context. "No, certainly not! There are too many unsolved questions.". So which is it that you adhere to? So? Are we in a condition to understand underlying physical attributes or are there too many unsolved questions? I'll keep this as a short reply but you already know that I am looking forward to a continued dialogue. Tia. |
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#40
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"xxein" wrote in message ... On Feb 11, 7:46 am, "harry" wrote: "xxein" wrote in message Saving web ink. xxein: "Here I say boo: measurable relationships certainly depend on underlying physical attributes!". Geez you stupid ****, that's not an answer. |
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