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| Tags: causality, causeandeffect, invariance, relationship |
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#1
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We all know that the direct cause and effect relationship between two
events is invariant with respect to the temporal or spatial location of the events. In fact, physics is based around it. But, is there any objective proof save for the unit probability of such invariance accounted for by statistical observation in the past? For instance, sitting here on the surface of planet earth, If I let go of a ball, I'm more likely to assume that the ball would go down instead of going up. Some would be very certain that the ball would go down. This is merely because of the unit probability, as observed in the past, of the occurence of such an effect given the same initial conditions. Of course, we have the universal law of gravitation to assert to us that the ball would go towards the center of the earth. But, this assertion by our law cannot guarantee that the ball would indeed go down because the law itself is an generalization attempt made by us to take advantage of the observed unfailing nature of this causal invariance. Objectively speaking, the law is nothing but a tool of convenience that has not failed till now. Imagine this, if the sun is to disappear suddenly and completely from spacetime, should it be of any surprise to us? In fact, what guarantees the continued existence of the sun in the first place? The law of conservation of matter? What guarantees the validity of such a law? There are no courts of physical law in the universe where we can argue over the disappearance of the sun or the lack of enforcement of the law that such an event defies. we'll just have to do with it and modify our laws to accomodate this new "quirk" (i.e. if we're to survive that long without the sun). So, in essence, the only thing that has the capacity to objectively guarantee that the ball would indeed go down when I let go of it the next time is the ball going down when I let go of it the next time. Think about this...the next time you press the key with the letter 'P' printed on it, is there really any guarantee that it will be the letter 'p' that will appear on your screen and not any martian symbol? The only proof that the next time you strike the key, p will appear on the screen is the effect itself. Laws of physics are designed around this *assumed* invariance of causality with respect to temporal and spatial location of the event. There is nothing we can do if this baseless assumption is to falter. Regards. |
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#2
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"rAgAv" wrote in message ... We all know that the direct cause and effect relationship between two events is invariant with respect to the temporal or spatial location of the events. In fact, physics is based around it. But, is there any objective proof save for the unit probability of such invariance accounted for by statistical observation in the past? For instance, sitting here on the surface of planet earth, If I let go of a ball, I'm more likely to assume that the ball would go down instead of going up. Some would be very certain that the ball would go down. This is merely because of the unit probability, as observed in the past, of the occurence of such an effect given the same initial conditions. Of course, we have the universal law of gravitation to assert to us that the ball would go towards the center of the earth. But, this assertion by our law cannot guarantee that the ball would indeed go down because the law itself is an generalization attempt made by us to take advantage of the observed unfailing nature of this causal invariance. Objectively speaking, the law is nothing but a tool of convenience that has not failed till now. Imagine this, if the sun is to disappear suddenly and completely from spacetime, should it be of any surprise to us? In fact, what guarantees the continued existence of the sun in the first place? The law of conservation of matter? What guarantees the validity of such a law? There are no courts of physical law in the universe where we can argue over the disappearance of the sun or the lack of enforcement of the law that such an event defies. we'll just have to do with it and modify our laws to accomodate this new "quirk" (i.e. if we're to survive that long without the sun). So, in essence, the only thing that has the capacity to objectively guarantee that the ball would indeed go down when I let go of it the next time is the ball going down when I let go of it the next time. Think about this...the next time you press the key with the letter 'P' printed on it, is there really any guarantee that it will be the letter 'p' that will appear on your screen and not any martian symbol? The only proof that the next time you strike the key, p will appear on the screen is the effect itself. Laws of physics are designed around this *assumed* invariance of causality with respect to temporal and spatial location of the event. There is nothing we can do if this baseless assumption is to falter. Regards. Assumptions based on invariance, especially when a particular event has occurred without variation innumerable times is what allows one to pursue various, errr, pursuits without needing to consider endlessly that today the sun may suddenly disappear. If one is to wake up each and every day, testing first that the water is going to flow downward into his kettle before he makes his coffee, and then test carefully that the boiled water is not going to fly upward into ones face that one may use a much larger part of each day pursuing more constructive, errrr, pursuits. Persons who do spend inordinate periods of their time contemplating such things are fortunate that their are persons trained to help them to realize that such thoughts and considerations are consuming a large part of what would otherwise be 'a life'. Fortunately the larger part of humanity is extraordinarily brave enough to throw themselves at their life each day and say "even though the sun may disappear I am going to take life by the tail and,,, and,, errrrr, watch the latest reality tv crap without fear that my tv may die a moment before I find out who is the thinnest of the fat people today!!!" Carpe Diem, just in case there aint a tomorrow! |
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#3
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"rAgAv" wrote in message ... We all know that the direct cause and effect relationship between two events is invariant with respect to the temporal or spatial location of the events. In fact, physics is based around it. That is a bit too strong. But, is there any objective proof save for the unit probability of such invariance accounted for by statistical observation in the past? No, causality is still an open subject. For instance, sitting here on the surface of planet earth, If I let go of a ball, I'm more likely to assume that the ball would go down instead of going up. Some would be very certain that the ball would go down. This is merely because of the unit probability, as observed in the past, of the occurence of such an effect given the same initial conditions. Of course, we have the universal law of gravitation to assert to us that the ball would go towards the center of the earth. But, this assertion by our law cannot guarantee that the ball would indeed go down because the law itself is an generalization attempt made by us to take advantage of the observed unfailing nature of this causal invariance. Objectively speaking, the law is nothing but a tool of convenience that has not failed till now. Correct, physicists do not claim otherwise. Imagine this, if the sun is to disappear suddenly and completely from spacetime, should it be of any surprise to us? In fact, what guarantees the continued existence of the sun in the first place? The law of conservation of matter? What guarantees the validity of such a law? There are no courts of physical law in the universe where we can argue over the disappearance of the sun or the lack of enforcement of the law that such an event defies. we'll just have to do with it and modify our laws to accomodate this new "quirk" (i.e. if we're to survive that long without the sun). Agreed. So, in essence, the only thing that has the capacity to objectively guarantee that the ball would indeed go down when I let go of it the next time is the ball going down when I let go of it the next time. Yes? Think about this...the next time you press the key with the letter 'P' printed on it, is there really any guarantee that it will be the letter 'p' that will appear on your screen and not any martian symbol? The only proof that the next time you strike the key, p will appear on the screen is the effect itself. Laws of physics are designed around this *assumed* invariance of causality with respect to temporal and spatial location of the event. Laws of physics were not designed around this one point. They evolved from many observations. But I agree that we cannot insist that there exists a 'Cosmic Rule Book' that controls how things happen. There may be, there may not, we have no way of telling. There is nothing we can do if this baseless assumption is to falter. Physicists do not make that assumption. Physicists attempt to quantatively model the world, for their own convenience and amusement. -- Martin Hogbin |
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#4
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On Sat, 2 Feb 2008 21:56:06 -0800 (PST), rAgAv wrote:
We all know that the direct cause and effect relationship between two events is invariant with respect to the temporal or spatial location of the events. In fact, physics is based around it. But, is there any objective proof save for the unit probability of such invariance accounted for by statistical observation in the past? For instance, sitting here on the surface of planet earth, If I let go of a ball, I'm more likely to assume that the ball would go down instead of going up. Some would be very certain that the ball would go down. This is merely because of the unit probability, as observed in the past, of the occurence of such an effect given the same initial conditions. Of course, we have the universal law of gravitation to assert to us that the ball would go towards the center of the earth. But, this assertion by our law cannot guarantee that the ball would indeed go down because the law itself is an generalization attempt made by us to take advantage of the observed unfailing nature of this causal invariance. Objectively speaking, the law is nothing but a tool of convenience that has not failed till now. Suppose we perform a large number of ball-dropping experiments, and the ball always falls down. Then consider two hypotheses: 1) When we let go of the ball, the ball will fall down. 2) When we let go of the ball, the ball will randomly go up or down. Both hypotheses are relatively simple, so there is no a priori reason to favor one much more than the other. Both are consistent with observation so far. But (1) predicts the observations with probability one, while the probability of our observations under (2) is exceedingly small. Therefore we should consider (1) to be the more probable hypothesis -- not certain or proven, just very probable. We can think of hypotheses such as 3) When we let go of the ball before February 4, it will fall down, but after that it will fall up. which also give our observations probability one, but these hypotheses are more contrived and should be considered less probable a priori. In reality, of course, (1) is not strictly true because in certain situations, such as that of a ball on a string, or a ball subject to high-force winds, the ball will not move down. But the idea remains valid even when applied to the more complex real world. -- Jim E. Black (domain in headers) How to filter out stupid arguments in 40tude Dialog: !markread,ignore From "Name" +"email address" [X] Watch/Ignore works on subthreads |
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#5
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rAgAv wrote:
We all know that the direct cause and effect relationship between two events is invariant with respect to the temporal or spatial location of the events. Time-like vs. space-like events - no strict ordering of cause adn effect. Quantum eraser and quantum double-eraser experiments - effect (classical or non-classical behavior at the double slit) prior to cause (look or don't look at the results; or look and forget then look again). TILT. -- Uncle Al http://www.mazepath.com/uncleal/ (Toxic URL! Unsafe for children and most mammals) http://www.mazepath.com/uncleal/lajos.htm#a2 |
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#6
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On Feb 3, 3:44*pm, Uncle Al wrote:
rAgAv wrote: We all know that the direct cause and effect relationship between two events is invariant with respect to the temporal or spatial location of the events. Time-like vs. space-like events - no strict ordering of cause adn effect. Quantum eraser and quantum double-eraser experiments - effect (classical or non-classical behavior at the double slit) prior to cause (look or don't look at the results; or look and forget then look again). TILT. -- Uncle Alhttp://www.mazepath.com/uncleal/ *(Toxic URL! Unsafe for children and most mammals)http://www.mazepath.com/uncleal/lajos.htm#a2 Sum over histories or path integral for the history of the universe is just plain nonsense. Mitch Raemsch Twice Nobel Laurate 2008 |
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#8
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"rAgAv" wrote in message ... We all know that the direct cause and effect relationship between two events is invariant with respect to the temporal or spatial location of the events. In fact, physics is based around it. But, is there any objective proof save for the unit probability of such invariance accounted for by statistical observation in the past? For instance, sitting here on the surface of planet earth, If I let go of a ball, I'm more likely to assume that the ball would go down instead of going up. The reason for the invariance of the laws of physics has to do with how the laws are formulated. They wouldn't be 'laws' if they changed. Why laws exist is a very deep question. The best answer I have seen is that fundamentally nature is governed by deep principles of symmetry. http://www.colorado.edu/philosophy/v...r/nothing.html Some would be very certain that the ball would go down. This is merely because of the unit probability, as observed in the past, of the occurence of such an effect given the same initial conditions. Translation - it is because nothing falsifies it. That such things are true is common sense. Of course, we have the universal law of gravitation to assert to us that the ball would go towards the center of the earth. But, this assertion by our law cannot guarantee that the ball would indeed go down because the law itself is an generalization attempt made by us to take advantage of the observed unfailing nature of this causal invariance. Objectively speaking, the law is nothing but a tool of convenience that has not failed till now. Imagine this, if the sun is to disappear suddenly and completely from spacetime, should it be of any surprise to us? You bet it would. In fact, what guarantees the continued existence of the sun in the first place? The same thing that guarantees there is no logical hole in the proof of 1 + 1 = 2. The law of conservation of matter? What guarantees the validity of such a law? There are no courts of physical law in the universe where we can argue over the disappearance of the sun or the lack of enforcement of the law that such an event defies. we'll just have to do with it and modify our laws to accomodate this new "quirk" (i.e. if we're to survive that long without the sun). So, in essence, the only thing that has the capacity to objectively guarantee that the ball would indeed go down when I let go of it the next time is the ball going down when I let go of it the next time. Think about this...the next time you press the key with the letter 'P' printed on it, is there really any guarantee that it will be the letter 'p' that will appear on your screen and not any martian symbol? The only proof that the next time you strike the key, p will appear on the screen is the effect itself. Laws of physics are designed around this *assumed* invariance of causality with respect to temporal and spatial location of the event. There is nothing we can do if this baseless assumption is to falter. So the fact it has never been falsified makes it baseless? You have a strange notion of baseless. Bill Regards. |
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#9
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So the fact it has never been falsified makes it baseless? You have a strange notion of baseless. I call it baseless because it hasn't been falsified *yet*. The occurence of future falsification is uncertain. Therefore, laws cannot be stamped down as "true forever". So, the assumptions that laws are true is ultimately baseless...though it can be said to be practical. It is just like saying that the keyboard you're typing with will work forever just because it's been working till now...since its creation. Such an assumption, in my view, is baseless. |
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#10
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"rAgAv" wrote in message ... So the fact it has never been falsified makes it baseless? You have a strange notion of baseless. I call it baseless because it hasn't been falsified *yet*. The occurence of future falsification is uncertain. Yes, this is well known. Phyiscists claim that experiments can verify (ie not falsify) laws they never claim that experiments can prove laws. Therefore, laws cannot be stamped down as "true forever". Who says that they are? So, the assumptions that laws are true is ultimately baseless...though it can be said to be practical. Indeed, many of the laws of physics are extremely practical and useful but physicists do not claim that they are excerpts from the 'Cosmic Rule Book'. It is just like saying that the keyboard you're typing with will work forever just because it's been working till now...since its creation. Yes, all of human knowledge is like that. -- Martin Hogbin |
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