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| Tags: delta, dirac, function, questions, two |
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#1
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(1) Let f(x_0)=0, f'(x_0) \= 0. I'm trying to prove the property
delta(f(x)) = (1/|f'(x_0)| ) delta (x-x_0) by observing INT(-oo,oo) delta(f) df = INT(-oo,oo) delta(x-x_0) dx. The left-hand side contributes to the integral only when f(x)=0, i.e., when x=x_0, and the right-hand side also only contributes when x=x_0. But how can we then take everything out of the integral and assert delta(f(x)) = (1/|f'(x_0)| ) delta (x-x_0) ? (2) How do you show that INT(0,oo) f(x)delta(x) dx = (1/2) f(0) ? I know that INT(-oo,oo) f(x) delta(x) dx = f(0), so I'd like to show that INT(-oo,0) f(x) delta(x) dx = INT(0,oo) f(x) delta(x) dx. But, the best I can do as of yet is to obtain INT(-oo,0) f(x) delta(x) dx = - INT(oo,0) f(-x) delta(-x) dx = INT(0,oo) f(-x) delta(-x) dx = INT(0,oo) f(-x) delta(x) dx, using first a change of variable and second that delta(x) is an even function. Unless I messed up on the change of variable, though, I don't see how to take this the next step and assert that it = INT(0,oo) f(x) delta(x) dx without some special condition of f (i.e. f is even). Suggestions please! Thx. |
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#2
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On Dec 3 burger wrote in sci.math and sci.physics:
(1) Let f(x_0)=0, f'(x_0) \= 0. I'm trying to prove the property delta(f(x)) = (1/|f'(x_0)| ) delta (x-x_0) by observing INT(-oo,oo) delta(f) df = INT(-oo,oo) delta(x-x_0) dx. The left-hand side contributes to the integral only when f(x)=0, i.e., when x=x_0, and the right-hand side also only contributes when x=x_0. But how can we then take everything out of the integral and assert delta(f(x)) = (1/|f'(x_0)| ) delta (x-x_0) ? It's probably best to view this as a definition of delta(f), motivated by the need for 'integration by substitution' to work. (2) How do you show that INT(0,oo) f(x)delta(x) dx = (1/2) f(0) ? I know that INT(-oo,oo) f(x) delta(x) dx = f(0), so I'd like to show that INT(-oo,0) f(x) delta(x) dx = INT(0,oo) f(x) delta(x) dx. But, the best I can do as of yet is to obtain INT(-oo,0) f(x) delta(x) dx = - INT(oo,0) f(-x) delta(-x) dx = INT(0,oo) f(-x) delta(-x) dx = INT(0,oo) f(-x) delta(x) dx, using first a change of variable and second that delta(x) is an even function. Unless I messed up on the change of variable, though, I don't see how to take this the next step and assert that it = INT(0,oo) f(x) delta(x) dx without some special condition of f (i.e. f is even). For any f, f(x)delta(x) is even: f(-x) = f(x) = 0 for all non-zero x. -- P.A.C. Smith replying by email: s/NOSPAM// "The vast majority of Iraqis want to live in a peaceful, free world. And we will find these people and we will bring them to justice." - George W. Bush (Washington DC, Oct 27 2003) |
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#3
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Today Phil Smith wrote in sci.math and sci.physics:
On Dec 3 burger wrote in sci.math and sci.physics: (1) Let f(x_0)=0, f'(x_0) \= 0. I'm trying to prove the property delta(f(x)) = (1/|f'(x_0)| ) delta (x-x_0) by observing INT(-oo,oo) delta(f) df = INT(-oo,oo) delta(x-x_0) dx. The left-hand side contributes to the integral only when f(x)=0, i.e., when x=x_0, and the right-hand side also only contributes when x=x_0. But how can we then take everything out of the integral and assert delta(f(x)) = (1/|f'(x_0)| ) delta (x-x_0) ? It's probably best to view this as a definition of delta(f), motivated by the need for 'integration by substitution' to work. (2) How do you show that INT(0,oo) f(x)delta(x) dx = (1/2) f(0) ? I know that INT(-oo,oo) f(x) delta(x) dx = f(0), so I'd like to show that INT(-oo,0) f(x) delta(x) dx = INT(0,oo) f(x) delta(x) dx. But, the best I can do as of yet is to obtain INT(-oo,0) f(x) delta(x) dx = - INT(oo,0) f(-x) delta(-x) dx = INT(0,oo) f(-x) delta(-x) dx = INT(0,oo) f(-x) delta(x) dx, using first a change of variable and second that delta(x) is an even function. Unless I messed up on the change of variable, though, I don't see how to take this the next step and assert that it = INT(0,oo) f(x) delta(x) dx without some special condition of f (i.e. f is even). For any f, f(x)delta(x) is even: f(-x) = f(x) = 0 for all non-zero x. This should read, "f(-x)delta(-x) = f(x)delta(x) = 0" -- P.A.C. Smith replying by email: s/NOSPAM// "The vast majority of Iraqis want to live in a peaceful, free world. And we will find these people and we will bring them to justice." - George W. Bush (Washington DC, Oct 27 2003) |
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#4
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"burger" wrote in message ...
(1) Let f(x_0)=0, f'(x_0) \= 0. I'm trying to prove the property delta(f(x)) = (1/|f'(x_0)| ) delta (x-x_0) Hum. y = f(x) dy = f'(x) dx Let the inverse of f(x) exist and be adequately well behaved. Let the inverse of f(x) be called g. x = g(y) dx = dy / f'(g(y)) Then int F(x) delta(f(x)) dx = int F(g(y)) delta(y) / f'(g(y)) dy = F(g(0)) / f'(g(0)) Now f(x_0) = 0. So g(0) = x_0. So int F(x) delta(f(x)) dx = F(x_0) / f'(x_0) So delta(f(x)) = delta(x - x_0) / f'(x) Socks |
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