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| Tags: formulae, newtons |
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#1
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I dont like that answer.
Newton was a mathematician by nature, I know he didnt just thumbsuck an formula. I am not asking about the goddamed format that we write F=ma in, I am asking how he derived the formula. How did Newton derive F=ma ? |
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#2
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"Mitchell B." wrote in message ... I dont like that answer. Newton was a mathematician by nature, I know he didnt just thumbsuck an formula. I am not asking about the goddamed format that we write F=ma in, I am asking how he derived the formula. How did Newton derive F=ma ? http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Newton's_laws_of_motion Newton was a mathematician (as you point out) and developed the method of "fluxions" (a form of the calculus concurrently developed by Leibniz). Newton also defined the "momentum" p (the product of the mass of an object m and its velocity v - a consequence of his first law of motion) of a particle. This made the analysis of the *change* of the momentum of the particle the key to the study of the motion of objects. He applied the concept of the derivative (from the calculus) to examine the *time rate of change of momentum* dp/dt, which he called the force F. http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Philoso...ia_Mathematica Now this is rocket science to many, but if you allow that the mass is not going to change (m is constant) then the calculus tells us that: dp/dt = d(m*v)/dt = m * dv/dt Then Newton dubbed dv/dt, the time rate of change of velocity, with the name "acceleration." Of course, with the mass constant, it is no longer rocket science: F = m * a The real triumph of his work (in 1687) came when he was able to apply his laws of motion to objects moving in a central field (as he defined gravity) to derive a rigorous mathematical basis for Kepler's Laws of Planetary Motion (1609-1619): http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Laws_of_Kepler This was as much a clincher for his theory as accounting for the precession of the perihelion of Mercury was for Einstein's General Relativity about 300 years later. Tom Davidson Richmond, VA |
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#3
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Thanks
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#4
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"Mitchell B." wrote in message ...
I dont like that answer. Newton was a mathematician by nature, I know he didnt just thumbsuck an formula. I am not asking about the goddamed format that we write F=ma in, I am asking how he derived the formula. How did Newton derive F=ma ? I already explained to you that he took the rate of change of momentum with respect to time. It's all based on the first "law", which states all bodies have default invariant momentum. When the momentum does change, then the cause of the change is an abstraction called a "force", which is simply defined AS the change in momentum over time. Quite stupid reasoning if you think about it, since NOTHING is ever observed to have constant momentum by default over a continuous time interval. Maybe one could derive that "the default" motion of bodies is not necessarily linear in flat space, but curved in flat space, curved in curved space or linear in curved space (as Einstein showed) or to make things worse, curved/linear in curved/linear quantized space. There are probably many "fundamental postulates" of physics which can be shown to be empirically valid. Either way, all that really matters is the empirical validity of the system, and Newton certainly prevails over others such as Aristotle. One should note that you can build a bicycle with Aristotlean physics and still know Aristotle was wrong. Likewise with Newtonian physics and its modern derivatives (Maxwell,SR,GR,QED,QFT). JS |
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#5
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Dear John Schoenfeld:
"John Schoenfeld" wrote in message m... "Mitchell B." wrote in message ... I dont like that answer. Newton was a mathematician by nature, I know he didnt just thumbsuck an formula. I am not asking about the goddamed format that we write F=ma in, I am asking how he derived the formula. How did Newton derive F=ma ? I already explained to you that he took the rate of change of momentum with respect to time. It's all based on the first "law", which states all bodies have default invariant momentum. A body in motion tends to stay in motion unless acted on by an outside force. He proposed it directly. Your derivation is (as is your memory) flawed. David A. Smith |
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#6
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"N:dlzc D:aol T:com \(dlzc\)" N: dlzc1 D:cox wrote in message news:2Slhc.25161$Yf6.9405@fed1read07...
Dear John Schoenfeld: "John Schoenfeld" wrote in message m... "Mitchell B." wrote in message ... I dont like that answer. Newton was a mathematician by nature, I know he didnt just thumbsuck an formula. I am not asking about the goddamed format that we write F=ma in, I am asking how he derived the formula. How did Newton derive F=ma ? I already explained to you that he took the rate of change of momentum with respect to time. It's all based on the first "law", which states all bodies have default invariant momentum. A body in motion tends to stay in motion unless acted on by an outside force. He proposed it directly. Your derivation is (as is your memory) flawed. Your definition is completely wrong. Your memory forgot to include "in a straight line with constant velocity", which is exactly what i said - "INVARIANT MOMENTUM". David A. Smith |
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#7
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Dear John Schoenfeld:
"John Schoenfeld" wrote in message om... "N:dlzc D:aol T:com \(dlzc\)" N: dlzc1 D:cox wrote in message news:2Slhc.25161$Yf6.9405@fed1read07... Dear John Schoenfeld: "John Schoenfeld" wrote in message m... "Mitchell B." wrote in message ... I dont like that answer. Newton was a mathematician by nature, I know he didnt just thumbsuck an formula. I am not asking about the goddamed format that we write F=ma in, I am asking how he derived the formula. How did Newton derive F=ma ? I already explained to you that he took the rate of change of momentum with respect to time. It's all based on the first "law", which states all bodies have default invariant momentum. A body in motion tends to stay in motion unless acted on by an outside force. He proposed it directly. Your derivation is (as is your memory) flawed. Your definition is completely wrong. Your memory forgot to include "in a straight line with constant velocity", which is exactly what i said - "INVARIANT MOMENTUM". I'm not the turkey that forgot that he described a relationship between force and change in acceleration. And I'm not the turkey that then produced a "broken" derivation to confuscate an honest question from an unknowing poster. You've succeeded in acting like a troll. It may not have been your intent, but that is what you managed to do. David A. Smith |
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#8
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I'm not the turkey that forgot that he described a relationship between
force and change in acceleration. And I'm not the turkey that then produced a "broken" derivation to confuscate an honest question from an unknowing poster. You've succeeded in acting like a troll. It may not have been your intent, but that is what you managed to do. David A. Smith What? |
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