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Old August 25th 06 posted to sci.physics
Mike
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Default If space is non-Euclidean, then are the inverse-square laws really inverse-square?


Casey Hawthorne wrote:
If space is non-Euclidean, then are the inverse-square laws really
inverse-square?

e.g. Fsub G = (G * m * M) / (r^2)

and Coulomb's Law?

--
Regards,
Casey


Whether space has actually a geometry or the geometry of space is a
matter of convention, is a matter of philosophical debate given the
name Conventionalism.

However, Newton's inverse square law has been confirmed experimentally
to about 1 part in a trillion accuracy:

http://prola.aps.org/abstract/PRL/v69/i12/p1722_1

If there is a deviation from the inverse square law it must take place
either in very small distances in the order of Planck length (10^-35 m
or so) or at very long ranges or both. Even is that is the case, it
will be hard to tie that to the "geometry" of space because it is very
hard to prove space has such property.

Mike

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