On Mon, 14 Jul 2003 18:56:08 +0000 (UTC), "greywolf42"
wrote:


(snip)


While I was unaware that Dirac was the first to bring up magnetic monopoles
in the interests of symmetry, the faddish years were definitely the 60's and
70's. And despite Dirac, symmetry, and 20 years of effort -- magnetic
monopoles remain fictional. Constistent with Maxwell's derivation -- and
inconsistent with QM and Dirac.

greywolf42
ubi dubium ibi libertas


Another view is that magnetic monopoles are incosistent with Maxwell
equations but consistent with QM and Dirac. They are inconsistent
with Maxwll equations if Maxwell equations contain dF=0.

They are consistent with QM because moving into the quantum domain we
move from the category of continuous or even smooth fiber bundles
to the category of measurable functions and operator algebras. In QM
dF=0 needs to hold only "almost everywhere", and this leads to the
possibility of having an infinite number of monopoles in the universe.

ark
--

Arkadiusz Jadczyk
http://www.cassiopaea.org/quantum_future/homepage.htm

--