"Richard" wrote in message ...


[snip]


Where in the lorentz transform is it implicit that v corresponds only to
tangible particles? You are only repeating what you've heard over and
over. This was an outright lie imposed in order to save SR from very
observable superluminal speeds. It was a rationalization, it was a
fabrication, it was pulled out of their asses. Tell me, If a spot
(generated by a rotating laser) is moving at 2c along a fence wrt me,
then what speed will that spot be moving wrt an observer moving at x m/s
wrt the fence, as measured by that observer?

Primed frame 2 moving with velocity vc wrt unprimed frame.

Spot_event 1: (x',t') = ( 0, 0 )
Spot_event 2: (x',t') = ( wt', t' )
velocity of spot = wt' / t' = w
for instance 2c

Spot_event 1: (x,t) = ( 0, 0 )
Spot_event 2: (x',t') = ( g(wt'+vt'), g(t'+vwt'/c^2 )
velocity of spot = (w+v)/(1+vw/c^2)

w c == (w+v)/(1+vw/c^2) c
w = c == (w+v)/(1+vw/c^2) = c
w c == (w+v)/(1+vw/c^2) c

Subluminal in one frame == subluminal in all frames
Luminal in one frame == Luminal in all frames
Superluminal in one frame == superluminal in all frames

Dirk Vdm