Hey again J-boy!

and would like to know if (6) in this file is is correct.
http://jayryablon.files.wordpress.co...alculation-of-...

Your eq(5) looks wrong. You can't just add the exponents
like that unless they commute. (d/dB doesn't commute with B^2).

This is not rocket science nor is it particularly
earthshaking. But, I am having some conceptual trouble
thinking about this integral (6) in which the plane wave
coefficient B=0, and would appreciate if someone can help me
straighten out my thinking about this.

You're guaranteed to get more help with this sort of boring
basic stuff over on www.physicsforums.com (try the quantum
physics forum). Also, it's latex-capable, so you don't need
to rely on auxiliary files like you're doing here on spr.

- LOL from Neuropulp!

P.S: I tried to reply to your previous posting, but it
attempt failed. Don't know why.

P.P.S: Try to think of a more original salutation than
"Pulp-boy". You can do better than that! :-) :-)
(Wrong gender, btw.)